Public Administration 2005 (pre) question paper

C.S.E. PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION - 2005
(PRELIMINARY)
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks :300
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Shri Jagjivan Ram was appointed as the Chairman of the Central Social
Welfare Board when it was set up in 1953.
2. The National Commission for Women was set up as a national apex statutory
body in 1992.
3. The National Institute of Public Co-operation and Child Development is an
autonomous body and functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3
2. Which one among the following is associated with the, 'Report of Public
Administration' and the 'Report on Efficient Conduct of State Enterprise'?
(a) The Ayyangar Committee, 1949
(b) The Secretariat Reorganization Committee, 1947
(c) The Gorwala Report, 1951
(d) The Appleby Reports, 1953 and 1956
3. Whi~h one of the following is the correct chronological order of the
following Commissions/Committees in India during the British. Rule?
(a) The Aitchison Commission - The Tottenham Committee –
The Lee Commission - The Islington Commission
(b) The Lee Commission - The Islington Commission
The Aitchison Commission - The Tottenham Committee
(c) The Aitchison Commission -The Islington Commission
The Lee Commission - The Tottenham Committee
(d) The Lee Commission - The Tottenham Committee
The Aitchison Commission - The Islington Commission
4. Match items in the List I (Country) with those in the List II (Features of
Civil Service) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
A U.S.A. 1. Tradition of administrative centralization is
undergoing change
B Great Britain 2. The office of Personnel Management is an
independent agency under the President
C France 3. 'Next Steps' programmes sought to transform
structure of management of the civil service
D Japan 4. Bureaucratic elitism is reinforced by educational
and employment system
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A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
5. Consider the following statements in respect of the civil services in the USA?
1. All Federal posts are recruited on the basis of merit.
2. Hatch Acts prohibited partisan political activities of civil servants.
3. There are short-term political appointments and permanent career services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only
6. Match items in the List I (Types of Training) with those in the List II
(Features) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
A Vestibule 1. It involves frequent re-assignment to training
different divisions of the organization
B. Retraining 2. It has a specific job - centred focus & includes
formal instructions
C. Circular training 3. It involves a series of introductory lectures
followed by inspection trips to the departments
and field stations to provide first-hand
knowledge
D. Induction training 4. It involves instruction in a new field of
specialization or an extensive training in the old
field of specialization
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 4 3 2
7. Who among the following gave initial impetus, evolution of organizational
development (OD)?
(a) Robert Merton (b) David Hume
(c) Kurt Lewin (d) W. D. Ross
8. In which of the following countries does rank classification prevail?
1. France 2. England 3. Canada
4. USA 5, India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 5
9. Which of the following are the functions of civil services in a developing
society?
1. Deciding policies 2. Drafting legislative bills
3. Pre-audit 4. Framing departmental legislation
5. Administration adjudication
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Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
10. In accordance with the managerial grid developed by Robert Blake and Jane
Mouton, which one of the following implies the leadership style that has a
high degree of concern for people and a low degree of concern for
production?
(a) Impoverished management
(b) Country club management
(c) Team management
(d) Middle of the road management
11. In the context of Likert's system of leadership styles in management, match
items in the List I (Approach) with List II (Attributes) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
Autocratic 1. Structured decisions
Benevolent 2. Team decisions
Consultative 3. Traditional decisions
Participative 4. Friendly climate for decisions
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 3 1 4 2
12. Match items in the List I (Management Thinker) with those in the List II
(Concept) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
A Herbert Simon 1. Job enrichment
B. F.W. Taylor 2. Contribution – satisfaction equilibrium
C. Frederick Herzberg 3. Bounded rationality
D. C. I. Barnard 4. Functional foremanship
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 4. 2 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
13. Which one of the following best describes the relationship between policies
and procedures in an organization?
(a) Policy and procedure offer equal discretion in decision making
(b) Procedures are laid down before the policies are adopted
(c) Policies are more stable than the procedures
(d) Procedures may be same for all departments within al organization while the
policies might differ
14. In a traditional autocratic system, the manager would specify both the
standards for performance and the methods for achieving them. In a
participative management system, which of the following is specified by a
manager?
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(a) Only the methods for achieving the standards performance
(b) Neither the standards of performance nor the methods for achieving them
(c) Both the standards of performance and the methods for achieving them .
(d) Only the standards of performance
15. Consider the following statements:
Contractual employment in public employment has been advocated because:
1. it is a project work of a purely temporary nature to be completed in specified
time.
2. it requires specialised skills and inputs for short duration.
3. it is a legitimate and accepted form of employment.
4. it is required for purposes of lateral entry for various positions. at senior
level.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
16. Match List I (Terms) with List II (Defined by) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
Consolidated Fund of India 1. Article 110
Money Bill 2. Article 267
Annual Financial Statement 3. Article 266
Contingency Fund of India 4. Article 265
5. Article 112
A B C D A B C D
(a) 5 1 4 2 (b) 3 2 5 1
(c) 5 2 4 1 (d) 3 1 5 2
17. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act introduced a new part IX A in the
Constitution of India.
2. The provisions of the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act also apply to the
Scheduled Areas & Tribal Areas governed by Article 244 (1) and (2) of the
Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act specifies the manner and procedure
of election of the Chairperson of a Municipal Corporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
18. When were 17 Departmental Related Standing Committees set up in India
on the recommendations of the Rule Committee of the Lok Sabha?
(a) 1964 (b) 1977
(c) 1990 (d) 1993
19. In which one of the following countries is the 'Doctrine of Co-directorship'
prevalent as a method of control over administration?
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(a) U.S.A. (b) France
(c) Switzerland (d) Germany
20. Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of the
administrative levels in a State?
(a) Secretariat - Directorate - Divisional – District
(b) Directorate - Secretariat - Divisional – District
(c) Secretariat - Divisional - District – Directorate
(d) District - Divisional - Directorate - Secretariat
21. Consider the following Committees appointed in India to examine and
report on local governments:
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
2. Ashok Mehta Committee
3. Smt. Daya Choubey Committee
4. R.K. Khanna Committee
Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence in which these
Committees were set up?
(a) 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 (b) 1 - 4 - 3 - 2
(c) 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 (d) 1 - 3 - 4 - 2
22. In the post-independence period the Government appointed several
committees and commissions to improve the urban local bodies. Some of
them are:
1. Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
2. Taxation Enquiry Commission
3. National Commission on Urbanization
4. Local Finance Enquiry Committee
Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence in which the
above committees and commissions were set up?
(a) 1-2-4-3 (b) 4-3-1-2
(c) 1 - 3 - 4 - 2 (d) 4 - 2 - 1 - 3
23. When was the first municipal corporation in India at Madras set up?
(a) 1587 (b) 1687
(c) 1787 (d) 1887
24. Consider the following statements:
1. Game theory highlights the explicit role of human relationship and
interactions in decisions
2. Methods on decision making based on heuristic principles proceed along
empirical lines.
3. Dynamic nature of organizational objectives is one of the reasons for
decision making characterized by bounded rationality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Directions: The following 6 (SIX) items consist of two statements: one
labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other III as 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items
using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
25. Assertion (a): In spite of changes having taken place in the administrative
scenario, heart burning between 'generalists' and 'specialists'
continues.
Reason (R) The requirements of economic and technological development
have drastically changed the ratio-relationship between
'generalists' and 'specialists'
26. Assertion (a): H.A. Simon was the first to give a meaningful analysis of the
decision making process.
Reason (R) Classical thinkers like Fayol and Urwick did not see decisionmaking
as an all-pervasive concept. .
27. Assertion (a): McGregor's Theory Y is based on the external control of
human behaviour.
Reason (R) Theory Y is characterized by decentralization of authority.
28. Assertion (a): State Five-Year plans and annual plans have to be approved by
the Planning Commission.
Reason (R) Membership of National Development Council consists of the
Prime Minister as the Chairman, all Union Cabinet Ministers,
Chief Ministers of all States and representatives of the Union
Territories.
29. Assertion (a): The Chief Secretary of a State acts as the ex-officio Secretary
to the Council of Ministers in the State.
Reason (R) The powers and functions of Chief Secretary of a State are
.listed in the Constitution of India.
30. Assertion (a): If in a cut motion during discussion of demands for grants In
the Annual Financial Statement, the reduction demanded is
either in the form of a lump sum or omission or reduction of an
item in the demand, the motion which enables such cut is
known as 'Economy Cut'.
Reason (R) The motion in the above case represents disapproval of the
policy underlying the demand.
31. Which one among the following is not a function of the State Secretariat?
(a) To assist a Minister in the formulation of policy
(b) To act as channel of communication.
(c) To prepare drafts of the legislation to be introduced in the Legislative
Assembly
(d) To assist the legislature In secretarial work
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32. Which one of the following was recommended by the Administrative
Reforms Commission regarding Directorates?.
(a) The distinction between the Secretariat as the policy making body and the
Directorate as the executive agency should be abolished
(b) The Directors must be granted ex-officio status as Secretaries
(c) There should be liberal delegation of powers from the Secretariat to the
Directorate
(d) There should be uniformity in the powers delegated to all the Directorates
33. Consider the following statements: Lord Ripon's resolution of 1882 provided
new life to the local bodies, which were later hampered by several factors,
such as
1. hostile attitude of Lord Curzon towards local bodies.
2. obstructive tactics of the bureaucracy.
3. sudden expansion of elected non-officials.
4. reduction of official control of Deputy Commissioners.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
34. Match List I (Institutions) with List U.(Articles of Constitution) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A Comptroller & Auditor General of India
B. Finance Commission
C. Administrative Tribunals
D. Union Public Service Commission
list II
1. Article 315
2. Article 280
3. Article 148
4. Article 323 (A)
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 4 2 3
35. Which of the following statements are correct about the post of Cabinet
Secretary?
1. He works under the direct control of Prima Minister.
2. He is usually the seniormost civil servant of the country.
3. The official warrant of precedence gives him the first place among the civil
servants.
4. He is the head of the Cabinet Secretariat.
5. This office was created in 1950.
Select the correct answer using the- codes gjven below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
36. Which one of the following government documents first suggested for having
elections of Panchayati Raj Institutions on political party basis?
(a) Report of the Administrative Reforms Commission
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee Report
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(c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report
(d) Diwakar Committee Report
37. A metropolitan committee can be set up in an area having population
(a) 3 lac - 4.99 lac (b) 5 lac - 9.99 lac
(c) Up to 10 lac (d) Above 10 lac.
38. Which of the following functions are performed by a Gram Sabha?
1. All public problems are discussed.
2. Village budget and programmes are framed.
3. Beneficiaries of various government programmes are identified.
4. In order to keep a watch on the panchayats, a Vigilance Committee is
constituted.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
39. Which of the following are included in the non-tax revenue of the municipal
bodies?.
1. Toll on new bridge.s 2. Fees and fines
3. Income from enterprises 4. Octroi
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
40. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the finances
of urban local government?
(a) They can apply for loans from State Government, Union Government, World
Bank or other international agencies
(b) Their borrowing powers are defined in the Municipal Act
(c) Most of the urban local bodies are dependent on finances provided by the
State Government
(d) State Government charges interest on loans and decides time limit for its
repayment
41. Consider the following with reference to 73rd Constitution Amendment in
respect of Panchayati Raj
1. Direct elections of members at all levels.
2. Direct elections of chairpersons at the village level.
3. Indirect election of chairpersons at the intermediate levels and district levels.
4. Mandatory provision for holding elections.
Which of the above are the provisions of the 73rd Constitution Amendment in
respect of Panchayati Raj?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
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42. Which of the following are the common compulsory provisions of the 73rd
and 74th Constitution Amendment Act?
1. Five yearly elections
2. Reservation for backward classes
3. Reservation for women 4. Nagar Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
43. Which one of the following provisions has been left to the will of the State
Governments in the 73'd Constitution Amendment Act?
(a) Providing reservation to the Backward Classes
(b) All posts at all levels to be filled by direct elections
(c) Reservation. of seats for SC/ST in proportion to their population
(d) Reservation up to 1/3 seats for women in panchayats
44. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were
stressed in World Bank Report of
(a) 1992 (b) 1997
(c) 2000 (d) 2003
45. Which one of the following is not upheld by New Public Administration?
(a) Value based approach (b) Dogmas of efficiency and economy
(c) Social equity in service delivery (d) Relevant research
46. Which one of the following is mainly discussed in "The Next Society" by
Peter Drucker?
(a) Demographics' (b) New economy
(c) Knowledge society (d) Information techno-society
47. Consider the following statements:
Coordination in an organisation is necessary to
1. stop growing tendency towards empire building.
2. avoid conflicts or overlapping in the work of the employees.
3. concentrate on one aspect of work.
4. achieve the goals of an organisation effectively.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
48. Consider the following statements:
1. Estimates of expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India are
not submitted to the vote of the Parliament and there can be no discussion on
the same in either House of the Parliament.
2. Vote of credit is a grant approved by the Parliament in advance of the
detailed examination of various demands presented to it.
3. Token grants do not involve additional expenditure.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3
49. Match List I (Management Expert) with List II (Major Area) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
List I List II
A. Philip Kotler 1. Organizational change
B. Robert C Merton 2. Business process re-engineering
C. Michael Hammer 3. Derivative pricing formula
D. Peter M. Senge 4. Marketing Management
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4. 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
50. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 state cadres in all for the all-India services.
2. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions is the cadrecontrolling
authority for all the three all-India services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Consider the following statements:
1. If the Rajya Sabha has declared by resolution supported by not less than twothirds
of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in
the national interest to do so, Parliament may by law provide for the creation
of one or more all-India services.
2. Article 311 of the Constitution of India deals with the dismissal or removal of
a person who is a member of a civil service' of the Union or an all-India
service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a
State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. Which of the following organizations are under the administrative control of
the Department of Personnel and Training, the Ministry of Personnel,
Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India?
1. Central Vigilance Commission 2. Central Administrative Tribunal
3. Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration
4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy
5. Union Public Service Commission
6. Public Enterprises Selection Board
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 3, 4 and 5 (b) 5 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 (d) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
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53. Match List I (Institute) with List II (Location) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A Vaikunth Mehta National Institute of
Cooperative Management
B. Institute of Applied Manpower Research
C. National Institute of Rural Development
D. Defence Institute of Work Studies
List II
1. Hyderabad
2. Pune
3. Mussoorie
4. Kanpur
5. Delhi
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 5 1 3
(c) 3 5 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
54. Who among the following studied the impact of computers on the
hierarchical pyramid of an organization?
(a) John Rawls (b) John Pfiffner
(c) Elton Mayo (d) David Rusk
55. Consider the following statements:
1. The universal design theory of organization emphasizes on informal structure
of organization
2. The situational design theory of organization views an organization as a
closed system.
3. The traditional approach favours a rigid hierarchical structure of
organization.
4. The system approach favours a flexible participative structure of
organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
56. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Max Weber's model of
bureaucracy?
(a) Offices are arranged in the form of a hierarchy
(b) All organizational members are to be selected on the basis of technical
qualifications
(c) Control in the bureaucratic organization is based on personally applied rules
(d) Officials pursue their careers within the organization
57. Consider the following stages:
1. Politics - administration dichotomy
2. The humanistic challenge
3. Search for universal principles
4. New Public Administration
5. Focus on inter-disciplinary studies
6. Paradigm shifts
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above stages of
historical evolution of Public Administration as a discipline?
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(a) 1 - 3 - 2 - 5 - 4 - 6 (b) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1 - 6 - 5
(c) 1 - 2 - 3 - 5 - 4 - 6 (d) 4 - 3 - 5 - 1 - 6 - 2
58. Which one of the following statements is correct about the difference
between supervision and span of control?
(a) Supervision is directing and guiding the subordinates, while span of control is
the exercise of authority
(b) Supervision is directing and guiding the subordinates, while span of control
relates to the number of subordinates being directed
(c) Supervision relates to the number of subordinates being directed, while span
of control is directing and guiding the subordinates
(d) Supervisioin is the exercise of authority while span of control is taking
punitive action against the underperforming employees.
59. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of the classical approach
of Public Administration?
(a) Acceptance of politics - administration dichotomy
(b) The search for principles of administration through scientific analysis .
(c) An emphasis on the centralization of executive activities
(d) Focus on informal and socio-emotional aspects of organizations
60. Consider the following statements about the behavioural approach:
1. It is-concerned with the scientific study of human behaviour
2. It was started by Chester Barnard and later on developed by Herbert Simon.
3. "Its literature is mostly descriptive and not perspective.
4. It stresses on informal relations and communication patterns.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
61. Which one of the following is not correct about system approach?
(a) A system is more than sum of its parts
(b) A system can be considered to be either closed or open
(c) Boundaries in a system are not rigid, impenetrable, or closed
(d) If a system is to achieve dynamic equilibrium, it must not have interactions
with its environment
62. Consider the following statements in respect of bureaucratic form of
organizational design:
1. The primary strength of the bureaucracy lies in its ability to perform nonstandardized
activities in a highly efficient manner.
2. In bureaucracy, there is little need for innovative and experienced decision
makers below the level of senior executives;
3. The pervasiveness of rules and regulations substitutes for managerial
discretion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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63. Which one of the following is not an essential feature of supervision?
(a) Development of agreed work standards between supervisor and subordinates
(b) Developing report forms for subordinates
(c) Resolving conflicts and misunderstanding among subordinates
(d) Fault finding and punishing subordinates
64. Which one of the following generalisations can be drawn from
decentralisation of powers?
(a) 'Planning from below' is a good illustration of this phenomenon
(b) Jurisdictional lines are to be identified
(c) Decisions will affect overall policies
(d) Local officers will report to more than one central agency
65. Match List I (Theory of Motivation) with List II (Premise) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Two Factor theory of F. Herzberg
List II
1. Self-direction and self-control
2. Motivation is a product of anticipated worth of a goal and chances of
achieving that goal
3. Reliance on extemal control of human behaviour
4. Job enrichment instead of job enlargement as a motivation strategy
A B C A B C
(a) 2 1 4 (b) 3 4 1
(c) 2 4 1 (d) 3 1 4
66. Who was analysed leadership in termsof circular response?
(a) C.I.Barnard (b) Mooney
(c) M.P. Follett (d) Millet
67. Which of the following specific incentives for the satisfaction of an
individual have been identified by C.I. Barnard?
1. Material inducements
2. Personal non-material opportunities
3. Desirable physical conditions of work
4. Ideal benefactions ,
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 ,
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
68. Which of the following concepts are associated with M.P. Follet?
1. Functional authority 2. 'Bottom-up' authority
3. Conflict and integration 4. 'Power over' and 'Power with'
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
69. Which of the following concepts are associated with C.I. Barnard? I~
1. Contribution - Satisfaction Equilibrium
2. Zone of Acceptance
3. Strategic Factors in Decision Making
4. Acceptance theory of Authority
5. Organisation as Cooperative System
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 5
70. Which of the following are associated with Simon?
1. He equated administration with decision-making.
2. He did not stress upon decision-making as an alternative to the structural
approach.
3. He proposed a new concept of administration based up on logical positivism.
4. He distinguished between programmed & non-programme decisions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) .1,2 and 3 (b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
71. Which of the following factors are labelled as job dissatisfiers by F.
Herzberg?
1. Salary 2. Supervision
3. Responsibility 4. Work itself
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
72. Who among the following writers concluded that 'people preferred jobs that
offered opportunities for recognition, achievement and responsibility'?
(a) A. Maslow (b) D. McGregor
(c) F. Herzberg (d) Rensis Likert
73. Consider the following statements:
1. Functional classification was recnlT1mended by the Fifth Central Pay
Commission.
2. Position classification results in uniform treatment for promotions.
3. For recruitment to the existing three All-India Services, the Union Public
Service Commission is involved only with the recruitment through open
competition examinations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
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74. Consider the following statements in respect of the Contingency Theory of
Leadership:
1. In extreme unfavourable or extreme favourable situations, a human relation
oriented leader is more effective.
2. In a moderately unfavourable or moderately favourable situation, a taskoriented
leader is more effective.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Who among the following revised the Human Relations approach of Prof. E.
Mayo into a New Human Relations model of management?
(a) Fritz Roethlisberger (b) Rensis Likert
(c) James MacGregor (d) Mary Parker Follet
76. For every 'principle' of administration, there is a Counterprinciple, thus
rendering the whole idea of principles moot. Which one of the following
brought the above point of view?
(a) The Science of Public Administration by R. Dahl
(b) Administrative Behaviour by H. Simon
(c) Ventures in Public Policy by Y. Dror
(d) Administrative State by D. Waldo
77. Consider the following statements: According to Ferrel Heady, both
Comparative Public Administration and International Administration are
similar because
1. both avoid concentration on the administrative system of one single nation.
2. both disregard any administrative system as 'Ideal'.
3. both have a similar framework for analysis:
4. both believe in gradual convergence for mutual benefit.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
78. Which of the following are the motivating concerns which Comparative
Public Administration addresses as an intellectual enterprise?
1. The search for theory.
2. The urge for practical application.
3. The incidental contribution to the broader field of comparative politics.
4. The comparative analysis of ongoing problems of public administration.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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79. Which one of the following statements is acceptable to the protagonists of
New Public Administration?
Rationality as a value
(a) leads to efficient performance
{b) causes flexibility problem in prioritisation
(c) is mere common sense
(d) is rooted in morality
80. Consider the following statements:
'The crisis of identity' in Public Administration in the seventies was
accentuated by
1. the demise of Wilsonian dichotomy
2. the protests made by post-behaviouralists .
3. the growth of Comparative Public Administration
4. the expansion of private administration and market debate Which of the
statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
81. Which one of the following is a clear and distinct line of authority among the
positions in organisations?
(a) Organisational design (b) Chain of command
(c) Hierarchy (d) Departmentalisation
82. Task achievement and excellence of performance in accomplishing a task
are emphasized sometimes at the expense of obedience to one's superior.
Which one of the following has the above as a principal feature?
(a) Closed model organisation
(b) Open model organisation
(c) Bureaucratic organisation
(d) The newer tradition organisation
83. Which one of the following is not correct in relation to the meaning of
delegation?
(a) Entrustment of responsibility to another for performance (b)Entrustment of
powers and rights; or authority, to be exercised
(c) Creation of an obligation, or accountability, on the part of the person
accepting the delegation to perform in terms of the standards established
(d) Shifting of workload without transferring corresponding authority to make a
decision
84. Which of the following are provided for by the Constitution (74th
Amendment) Act in respect of planning of urban and rural local
governments?
1. Constitution of the District Planning Committee
2. Not less than 2/3'd of the District Planning Committee should be elected by,
from amongst, the elected members of district panchayats and municipalities.
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3. All other details regarding the composition of the District Planning
Committee are left to the State Legislatures.
4. Constitution of the Metropolitan Planning Committee. Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 2and4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
85. Which one of the following is the main cause of the scalar system?
(a) Unity of command (b) Hierarchy
(c) Delegation (d) Coordination
86. Which one of the following statements illustrates the principle of span of
control?.
(a) The levels of management connote no inherent superiority and inferiority
(b) Automation, mechanisation and specialisation have brought about a sea
change in decision making
(c) The old concept of one single superior for each personis seldom found
(d) The ever increasing role of administration has focused attention on unity in
the administrative process
87. Match Ust I (Type of Delegation) with List II (Explanation) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A Specific delegation
B. Accrued delegation
C. Unwritten delegation
D. Sideward delegation
List II
1. Subordinate can delegate his authority to his immediate superiors
2, Authority is delegated on the basis of custom or usage
3. A person delegates authority to another who is also in the same rank in the
organisation
4. Orders, instructions or directions are delegated to a particular person
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
88. Consider the following statements:
1. The Estimates Committee of Parliament lacks the expert assistance of the
Comptroller & Auditor General of India which is available to the Public
Accounts Committee of Parliament.
2. All the Ministries / Departments of the Union Government are not taken up
for examination every year by the Estimates Committee, but only a few of
them are selected for this purpose. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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89. Consider the following statements:
1. The Comptroller & Auditor General or India / the Chairman & the Members
of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by the President if
India by warrant under his hand and seal and shall be removed from his
office in like manner & on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office on grounds of
proved misbehaviour or incapacity after an address by each House of
Parliament is supported by a majority of total membership of that House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
90. Consider the following statements:
1. Since 1989, the responsibility for evaluation and processing of proposals
relating to the capital restructuring of various public sector undertakings of
the Union Government is entrusted to the Controller General of Accounts.
2. The Institute of Government Accounts and Finance is situated in Pune.
3. The Expenditure Reforms Committee which completed its term in
September, 2001 was set up under the Chairmanship of YV Reddy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
91. Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Government took the historical step of separating accounts from
the audit function in respect of various ministries and departments under the
Central Government in 1980.
2. Ashoka Chanda was the first Comptroller and Auditor General of India. .
3. Even after the separation of accounts function from the audit function, the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India certifies the Union Government
Finance Accounts and Appropriation Accounts prepared by the Controller
General of Accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
92. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Committee Subject
(a) L.M. Singhvi Committee, 1986 Constitutional Status for
Panchayati Raj
(b) Santhanam Committee, 1964 Prevention of corruption
(c) Satish Chandra Committee, 1988 Civil Services Examination, Union Public
Service Commission
(d) Gore Committee, 1974 Parliamentary control over public
expenditure
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93. Which among the following are the features of participative management?
1. Overlapping structures
2. Cross-functional linkages
3. Multi-directional communication
4. Effective man-to-man relationship
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c.) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
94. Consider the following statements:
1. Auxiliary agencies have no execution or operative responsibilities.
2. Staff agencies are attached to the line agencies at different levels in the
hierarchy.
3. Line agencies provide channels of communication. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
95. Consider the following statements:
The purpose of judicial control over administration is
1. to control the policy and expenditure of the government
2. to ensure the lagality of officials' acts and thereby to safeguard the rights of
the citizens.
3. to bring all officials under the control of the people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
96. With regard to judicial control over administration what does 'malfeasance'
stand for?
(a) Error of procedure (b) Abuse of authority
(c) Error of fact (d) Error of law
97. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Management by exception: The concept of minimum intervention by
exception in operation, and then only when fall/
rise in performance exceeds acceptable
variations in results
(b) Management by objectives: A technique used in planning and controlling
(c) Managerial development: Formal programmes of training structured to
improve managerial skills
(d) Managerial grid: Also called project management
98. Which of the following are intrinsically linked with administrative
accountability?
1. Hierarchy 2. Span of control
3. Unity of command 4. 4. Orders
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
99. Which one of the following is not a system of efficiency rating in the U.S.A.?
(a) Production record system (b) Graphic rating scale system
(c) Personality inventory system (d) Personnel appraisal system
100. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the French Civil
Service?
(a) Civil Service comprises a large number of corps
(b) France upholds a vertical classification of Civil Service
(c) ENA does recruitment for the Civil Service
(d) Promotion is time-bound and based on seniority
101. Which among the following recommended the introduction of performance
budget in India?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Appleby Report
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(d) Administrative Reforms Commission
102. Which of the following is/are the provisions of Article 18 of the Constitution
of India which pertains to the Right to Equality to the citizens of India?
(a) No title, not being military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the
State
(b) No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State
(c) No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State, shall without
the consent of the President, accept any present, emolument or office of any
kind from or under any foreign State
(d) All of the above three
103. Which one of the following is not included in deficit financing in India?
(a) Withdrawal of past accumulated cash balance
(b) Borrowing from the Central bank
(c) Issue of new currency
(d) Borrowing from the people
104. Match List I (Grants) with List II (Explanation) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A Vote on account 1. To make any grant in advance in respect of
estimated expenditure for a part of financial year
pending the completion of the procedure
prescribed in Article 113
B. Excess grant 2. To make a grant for meeting an unexpected
demand upon resources of India
C. Exceptional grant 3. To take approval for money spent during a
financial year in excess of amount granted for the
service
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D. Supplementary 4. To take approval if the amount grantauthorized by
law for the current year is found insufficient
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 2 3 1 4
105. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Personnel
Authority of Japan:
1. The National Personnel Authority of Japan was created by the National
Public Service Law.
2. It is responsible for education and training of the public servants.
3. President and Commissioners of the National Personnel Authority of Japan
are "appointed by the Cabinet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
106. Which of the following statements is not correct in respect of civil service in
Japan?
(a) Political activism is totally absent in the Japanese bureaucratic tradition.
(b) The lateral movement between ministries in the Japanese civil service is
limited.
(c) There is dominance of law background graduates in the Japanese civil
service.
(d) The National Personnel Authority has all the non-elective and non-political
appointments, excluding specified posts under its control.
107. Consider the following statements in respect of the civil service in France:
1. The French Civil Service is dominated by the law experts.
2. Ecole National de Administration conducts competitive examination for entry
into the Government service.
3. Ecole National de Administration is not responsible for providing training to
the civil servants.
4. French civil servants are in enjoyment of political rights to a far greater
extent, as compared to those of other countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
108. Under which provision does the Governor of a State constitute a State
Finance Commission to review the financial position of Panchayats?
(a) Under the discretionary powers of the Governor
(b) By a resolution passed in the Legislative Assembly
(c) In accordance with the Article 2431 of the Constitution of India
(d) In accordance with a resolution passed in the Rajya Sabha
109. Article 143 of the Constitution of India deals with the Governor for each
State. By which Amendment Act, has it been provided that the same person
can be appointed Governor for more than one State?
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(a) Fifth (b) Seventh
(c) Ninth (d) Eleventh
110. In which one of the following methods of training, is a particular topic
chosen and specific groups are assigned the task of making an in-depth
'study of that subject under the guidance of an expert faculty?
(a) Case study method (b) Critical incident method
(c) Sensitivity method (d) Syndicate method
111. Which of the following Commissions I Reports recommended setting up of
Indian Institute of Public Administration?
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) A.D. Gorwala Report (d) Paul H. Appleby Report
112. Match items in the List I (Commission/Report) with those in List II
(Recommendation) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists: .
List I List II
A Aitchison Commission 1. Increase of emoluments for the members
of the Civil Services in order to dissuade
the European Civil Servants from
returning home
B. Islington Commission 2. Proposed classification of all the services
into Imperial provincial and subordinate
services
C. Montague Chelmsford Report 3. Holding of simultaneous examinations in
India and England for ICS
D. Lee 4. To associate Indians with Commission
administration in every branch
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
113. Which one of the following does not come in the ambit of recommendations
by the Finance Commission?
(a) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States
(b) The principles to be followed by the Centre while giving grants-in-aid to the
States out of .the Consolidated Fund of India
(c) The amount of money to be allocated to States from the Public Account of
India
(d) Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interest
of sound finance
114. Consider the following statements in respect of the Prime Ministar's
Secretariate :
1. It enjoys the status of a Department of the Government of India under
allocation of business rules
2. It has a few attached and subordinate offices under it.
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3. It came into existence immediately after independence replacing the
Secretary to the Governor General.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
115. Consider the following statements in respect of the Central Secretariat in
India:
1. It assists the Council of Ministers in the fulfilment of its responsibilities and
duties.
2. It is based on the belief that policy-making must be separated from policy
execution.
3. Secretarial system in India is similar both to the British and the Swedish
systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
116. Which are the functions of the attached offices to a ministry?
1. Providing execution direction required in the implementation of policies.
2. Serving as a repository of technical information.
3. Advising the concerned ministry on technical aspects of policies.
4. Detailed execution of the policies of the government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
117. Match List I (Concept) with List II (Propunder) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Daily balance chart 1. F.W. Taylor
B. Science of motion study 2. Emerson
C. Efficiency System 3. Gilberth
D. Shop floor activities 4. H.L.Gantt
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
118. What is the purpose of issue of Mandamus?
(a) Directing an official for the performance of a duty
(b) Release of an illegally detained person
(c) Transferring of a case from an inferior court to a court of higher jurisdiction
(d) Calling upon one to show as to by what authority he holds or claims a
franchise or office
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119. Which of the following opportunities is provided by the Appropriation Bill
to the legislature?
(a) To discuss the policy and other matters related to the expenditure of various
ministries
(b) To change amount of demands of various ministries
(c) To reallocate the grants of various ministries
(d) To vary the amount of expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of
India
120. Consider the following statements:
1. There is provision under an Article of the Constitution of India, that
Parliament may by law provide for adjudication of disputes relating to waters
of inter-state rivers or river valleys.
2. Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 has been amended by the Centre to
empower States to abolish the State Administrative Tribunals, if they so
desire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d)
19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (b) 26. (b) 47. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b)
37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a) 41. (d) 42. (d)
43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (b)
49. (d) 50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b)
55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (c)
67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (b). 70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (c)
73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (d)
79. (d) 80. (c) 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (c)
85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (b)
97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (d) 101. (d) 102. (d)
103.(d) 104. (a) 1 05.(d) 106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (c)
109. (b) 110. (d) 111. (d) 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (d)
115. (d) 116. (d) 117. (b) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (c)