GENERAL STUDIES – 2005
Previous year questions (Solved)
General Studies ( Indian History Questions only)
INDIAN HISTORY
1) Consider the following statements :-
1. The Charter Act 1853 abolished East India Company's monopoly of Indian trade.
2. Under the Government of India Act 1858, the British Parliament abolished the East India Company altogether and undertook the responsibility of the ruling India directly
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:- (b)
Expl:- The Monopoly trading rights of East India Company was abolished by the
Charter of 1813.
2) When Raja Wodeyar founded the Kingdom of Mysore, who was the ruler of the
Vijayanagar Empire?
(a) Sadasiva
(b) Tirumala
(c) Ranga II
(d) Venkata II
Ans:- (d)
Expl:- Venkata II was the last great ruler of Aravindu dynasty with his Permission
Raja Wodeyar founded Mysore.
3) Between which of the following was the ancient town of Takshasila located?
(a) Indus and Jhelum
(b) Jhelum and Chenab
(c) Chenab and Rave
(d) Rave and Beas
Ans:- (a)
Expl:- Taxila was one of the ancient learning centres. Chandragupta Maurya studied
here. It was also a Buddhist site.
4) Withe reference to the invaders in ancient India, which one of the following is the
correct chronological order?
(a) Greeks - Sakas - Kushans
(b) Greeks - Kushans - Sakas
(c) Sakes - Greeks - Kushans
(d) Sakas - Kushans - Greeks
Ans:- (a)
Expl:- In Post Mauryan Peroids, there were three important foreign dynasties to
rule India. They were Greeks (200BC), Sakas(100 BC) and Kushanas(50AD).
5) Consider the following statements :?
1. The Ikshvaku rulers of Southern India were antagonistic towards Buddhism.
2. The Pala rulers of Eastern India were Patrons of Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:- (b)
Expl:- The Ikshvaku rulers Patronised Buddhism. They Renovated the famous Buddhist
chaityas of Nagarjuna Konda and Amaravati.
6) Which one of the following revolts was made famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
in his novel Anand Math
(a) Bhil uprising
(b) Rangpur and Dinapur uprising
(c) Bishnupur and Birbhum rebellion
(d) Sanyasi rebellion
Ans:- (d)
Expl:- 'Bande Matram' song of 'Anand Math' was based on Sanyasi rebellion.
7) In the year 1613, where was the English East India Company given permission to set
up a factory(trading post)?
(a) Bangalore
(b) Madras
(c) Masulipattam
(d) Surat
Ans: (d)
Expl:- The first settlement of English was Masulipattam(1611).
8) With reference to the revolt of the year 1857, who of the following was betrayed by a
friend; captured and put to death by the British?
(a) Nana Sahib
(b) Kunwar Singh
(c) Khan Bahadur Khan
(d) Tantia Tope
Ans:- (d)
Expl:- Tantia Tope , the famous Gurellia warfare expert was betrayed by the Zamindari
friend Mansingh.
9) Under whose presidency was the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress held
in the year 1929 wherein a resolution was adopted to gain complete independence from the British?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Motilal Nehru
Ans:- (c)
10) "Lectures from Colombo to Almora" is based on the experience of which one of the following?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3, only
(c) 1 and 2, only
(d) 3 only
Ans:- (d)
11) Consider the following statements about Madam Bhikaji Cama :
(1) Madam cama unfurled the National Flag at the International
Socialist Conference in Paris in the year 1907.
(2) Madam cama served as private secretary to Dadabhai Naoroji.
(3) Madam cama wasorn to Parsi parents
(a) 1,2 and 3.
(b) 2 and 3 only.
(c) 1 and 2 only.
(d) 3 only.
Ans:- (b)
Expl:- Madam Cama unfurled the National Flag at 'Stuttgart' in Germany.
12) Who was the Governor-General of India during the Sepoy Mutiny ?
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Hardinge
(d) Lord Lytton
Ans:- (a) Expl:
- Expl:- Lord Canning was the last Governor - General and first Viceroy of India.
His tenure : 1856 - 1862.
13) In Indian history, who was Abdul Hamid Lahori ?
(a) An important military commander during Akbar's reign
(b) An official historian of the reign of Shah Jahan
(c) An important noble and confidant of Aurangzeb
(d) A chronicler and poet during the reign of Muhammad Shah
Ans:- (b)
Expl:- Lahori wrote 'Badshah - Nama' in Persian.
14) Bhakta Tukaram was a contemporary of which Mughal Emperor ?
(a) Babar
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Aurangzeb
Ans:- (c)
Expl:- Bhakta Tukaram was the contemporary of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir and
Prince Aurangazeb.
15)Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Afghan rulers to
the throne of Delhi ?
(a) Sikandar Shah - Ibrahim Lodi - Bahlol Khan Lodi
(b) Sikandar Shah - Bahlol Khan Lodi - Ibrahim Lodi
(c) Bahlol Khan Lodi - Sikandar Shah - Ibrahim Lodi
(d) Bahlol Khan Lodi - Ibrahim Lodi - Sikandar Shah
Ans:- (c)
Expl:- Founder : Bahlol Lodi; Last Ruler : Ibrahim Lodi.
16) Who among the following laid the foundation of Rashtrakuta Empire ?
(a) Amoghavarsha I
(b) Dantidurga
(c) Dhruva
(d) Krishna I
Ans:- (b)
Expl:- Founder of Rastrakuda dynasty. Fuedatory of Chalukyas of Bhadami.
Performed Hiranya Garpa ceremony.
17) Match List I (Finding/Invention/Calculation) with
List II (Ancient Indian Scholar) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I List II
(Finding/Invention/ (Ancient
Calculation) Indian Scholar)
A. Time taken by the Earth 1. Aryabhatta
to orbit the Sun
B. Calculation of the value of 2. Bhaskaracharya
('pi')
C. Invention of the digit zero 3. Budhayana
D. The game of snakes and 4. Gyandev
ladders
Code : A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans:- (?)
Expl:- A) Time taken by the Earth to orbit the Sun - Bhaskara Charya
B) Calculation of the value of (pi) - Aryabhatta
C) Invention of the digit zero. It was first mentioned in Aryabattam. But,
it existed before
D) The game of Snakes and Ladders - Budhayama
18) Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
Prominent Indian Writer Language
(a) Raja Rao : Telugu
(b) Gobind Trimbuk Deshpande : Marathi
(c) Subramaniyam Bharati : Tamil
(d) Tara Shankar Joshi : Gujarati
Ans:- (a)
Expl:- Raja Rao wrote in English, He wrote KantaPuma. The serpent and the Rope,
The Cat and Shakespeare.
19) Match List I (Place of Archaeological Monument) with List II (State) and
select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I List II
(Place of Archaeological (State)
Monument)
A. Sisupalgarh 1. Assam
B. Piprahwa 2. Manipur
C. Goalpara 3. Orissa
D. Bishnupur 4. Uttar Pradesh
Code :
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans:- (c)
20) Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Vikramsila Monastery : Uttar Pradesh
(b) Hemkund Gurudwara : Himachal Pradesh
(c) Udhayagiri Caves : Maharashtra
(d) Amaravati : Andhra Pradesh Buddhist Stupa
Ans:- (d)
Expl:- (a) Vikramsila Monastery : Bengal
(b) Hemkund Gurudwara : Punjab
(c) Udhayagiri Caves : Orissa
21) The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated with which one of the following ?
(a) Mahapadma Nanda
(b) Chandragupta maurya
(c) Ahoka
(d) Samudragupta
Ans:- (d)
Expl:-Allahabad Pillar inscription of Samudragupta was written by his court poet
and Commander-in-chief Harisena in Sanskrit.
22) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) State Recorganization Act : Andhra Pradesh
(b) Treaty of Yandabu : Assam
(c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh
(d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes a state
Ans:- (d)
Expl:- The state of Gujarat was created in 1960.
23) The initial design and construction of whih massive temple took place during the
reign of Suryavarman II ?
(a)Sri Mariamman Temple
(b) Angkor Vat
(c) Batu Caves Temple
(d) Kumakhya Temple
Ans:- (b)
Expl:- Angkor Vat, a Vishnu temple was built by Suryavarman II.
24) Assertion (A) :
Muhammad bin Tughluq Issued a new gold
coin which was called Dinar by Ibn Batutah.
Reason (R) :
Muhammad bin Tughluq wanted to issue token
currency in gold coin to promote trade with
West Asian and North African countries
Ans:- (c)
Feb 14, 2007
General Studies-06(Indian History Questions only)
Model Question paper of Indian History (Pre)
Model Questions
1.Match List I ( Wars ) with List II ( Governor Generals) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists ;
LIST-I LIST-II
(Wars) (Governor Generals)
A. The first Mysore war 1 Lord Cornwalis
B. The second Mysore war 2 Lord Hasting
C. The Third Mysore war 3 Lord Wellesley
D. The fourth Mysore war 4 Lord Waren hastings
5.Lord Smith
Codes:-
A B C D
a) 5 4 1 3
b) 1 2 3 4
c) 5 4 3 2
d) 4 3 2 1
2) The original cannon of the Jain’s is believed to have consisted of
a) 6 Angas b) 8 Angas c) 12 Purvas d) 14 Purvas
3) The Jaina system of thought closely resembles
a) Vedenta b) Samkhya c) Yogachara d) Rigveda
4) Aranyayi, Goddess of the Forest is first mentioned in the
a) Rig Veda b) Atharvaveda c) Aranayakas d) Upanishadas
5) Adaryu mentioned in the Vedas is
a) Vedic Rajan b) Vedic Queen c) A Type of Chariot d) A Category Sacrifices Priest
6) Match List I (Goods ) with List II ( Places) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists ;
List I List II
(Goods) (Places)
A. Copper 1. Deccan
B. Shell 2. Rajasthan
C. Lapis Lazuli 3. Kutch
D. Gold 4. Afganisthan
Codes:-
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 1 3 2 4
c) 2 3 1 4
d) 2 3 4 1
7) Match List I ( Tribal Revolts ) with List II ( Years) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists ;
List I List II
(Tribal Revolts) (Years)
A. Khods 1.1913
B. Santhals 2.1846-1848
C. Bhils 3.1855-1856
D. Mundas 4.1899
Codes:-
A B C D
a) 3 1 2 4
b) 2 3 1 4
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 1 4 2 3
8) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a) C.R.Reddi - Praja Mithra Madali
b) Jotiba Phule - Satya Shodak Samaj
c) B.R.Ambedkar - All India Depressed Classes Mission
d) Rajaram Mohan Roy – Prathana Samaj
9) The system of competitive examination for civil service was accepted in principle in the year
a) 1833 b) 1853 c) 1858 d) 1882
10) Monopoly of the East India Company to trade with china was abolished by the Charter Act of
a)1793 b) 1813 c) 1833 d) 1853
11) Which one of the following Act created the post of Lt.Governor of Bengal
a) 1773 Act b) 1784 Act c) 1858 Act d) 1853 Act
12) The main feature of 1919 Act was
a) Diarchy b) Federation c) Communal Representation d) Provincial autonomy
13) The Philosophy of Upanishad emphasis on
a) Bakti b) Gyan c) Karma d) Tapas
14) Match List I (Journals ) with List II ( Founders) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists ;
List I List II
(Journals) (Founders)
A. TatwaBodhini Sabha 1. Rajarammohan Roy
B Bharat Bhrama Samaj 2. G.K..Gohale
C. Bhrama Sabha 3. K.C.Sen
D. Servants of Indian society 4. D.N.Tagore
Codes:-
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 4 3 2 3
d) 1 2 3 4
15) Which of the following is not correct regarding Gupta and Post Gupta Age
a) First capital of Harsha was Thaneswar then Second capital was Kannauj
b) Chandra Gupta II’s reign , Ujjain was the Second capital
c) The Pallavas shifted the capital to Tanjore, due to threat of Pulukesin II
d) Huen - Tsang visited Harsha-Pulkesin II - Narshima Pallava I - court
16) Ayodhya is on the River bank of
a) Chambel b) Ganga c) Yamuna d) Sarayu
17) “Raja Vyavahar Kosh’ was complied during Sivaji’s reign, the book deals with
a) Chronicles of Maratha dynasty b) Polity c) Treasury d) Lexicography
18) When was the Calcutta Hindu College started?
a) 1815 b) 1829 c) 1830 d) 1817
19) When were Bethune schools for girls started?
a) 1845 b) 1849 c) 1850 d) 1833
20) “Suniyavada” philosophy was expounded by
a) Nagarjuna b) Nagasena c) Asvagosha d) Ananda
21) Which one of the following is not true of prehistoric of India?
a) Rock paintings belonged to Upper Paleolithic age
b) Chopani-mando provides the evidence of pottery
c) Manufacturing of pottery was developed in Mesolithic age
d) Mehragarh provides the earliest evidence of cotton
22) Match List I (Sites) with List II (Periods) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists;
LIST I LIST II
(Sites) (Periods)
A. Adamgarh 1. Upper Paleolithic
B. Adirambakkam 2. Neolithic
C. Burzaham 3. Mesolithic
D. Bimbetaka 4. Lower Paleolithic
Codes:-
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 2 4 1 2
c) 4 2 3 1
d) 3 4 2 1
23) How many seasons were mentioned in Rig Veda
a) 4 b) 5 c) 3 d) 1
24) According to the Buddhist tradition, the order of Varna system was
a) Brahmans, Kshatriyas,Vyshaiyas, Sudras
b) Kshatriyas, Brahamans, Vyshiayas,Sudras
c) Vaishiayas, Brahamans, Ksatriayas, Sudras
d) Sudras, Vyshaiyas, Kshatriyas, Brahamans
25) Who founded young Bengal movement
a) C.R.Das b) D.N.Tagore c) H.V.Derozio d) David Hare
Directions : The following seven items consist of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) ‘. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below :
Codes:
a) Both A and R is true. R is correct explanation of A
b) A and R is individually correct. But R is not correct explanation for A.
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
26) Assertion (A) : The main problem of Nawab of Bengal equal treatment of European
and Indian in trade concerned are
Reason ( R ) : East India Company’s servants misused trade pass
27) Assertion (A) : Firoz Tughlaq followed vigorous policies against Non Muslims
subject
Reason ( R ) : He imposed Jiziya tax on Non-Muslim in first time
28) Assertion (A) : Akbar founded new religion “Din-i-illahi” in 1580 A.D
Reason ( R ) : He was influenced by the philosophy of Monotheism
29) Assertion (A) : Battle of Plassey laid the foundation for British rule in Bengal
Reason ( R ) : The British received Diwani rights over Bengal after Plassey
30) Assertion (A) : Partition of India was accepted by Gandhiji in 1947
Reason ( R ) : He felt that it was only way to avoid communal riots
31) Assertion(A) : Vedic literature is the only major source to construct history of
Vedic culture
Reason ( R ) : There was no material source for that
32) Assertion(A) : The English introduced western education in India
Reason ( R ) : They wanted to make Indians aware of scientific and rational
advancement
33) Dual system was abolished by
a) Lord Warren Hasting b) Lord Wellesley c) Lord Robert Clive
d) Lord William Ben tick
34) Who founded “Veda Samaj”?
a) Doriaswamy Iyengar b)Sree Ramulu c) D.N.. Tagore d) a and b
35) who was the first English ambassador to Mughal court?
a) Hawkins b) Sir Thomas Rae c) William Norris d) Hudson
36) The first viceroy of India was
a) Lord canning b) Lord Dalhousie c) Lord William Bentick d) Lord Mountbatten
37) Lord Clive defeated Siraj-ud-duallah in the battle of
a) Battle of Plassey b) Battle of Panipat III c) Battle of Buxar d) Battle of Wandiwash
38) ‘Dipavasma’ was written in
a) Pratrit b) Pali c) Tamil d) Sanskrit
39) Who attended all the three round table conferences in London?
a) Gandhi b) Sarojini Naidu c) Jinnah d) Ambedkar
40) Under which of the following sets of ruler were organized the first three Buddhist councils
a) Bimbisara, Ashoka, Dasratha
b) Prasanajit, Bimbisara, Ajathasatru
c) Ajathatsatru, Kalakosa, Ashoka
d) Ajathatsatru, Kalakosa, Kanishka
41) Who was against the abolition of Sati
a) Rajaram Mohan Roy b) Tilak c) Gohale d) Radha Kant Deb
42) When did the east India Company established?
a) 1600 b) 1602 c) 1608 d) 1610
43) Which of the following was absent in Rig Vedic period?
a) Child marriage
b) Varna system based on occupation
c) Widow remarriage
c) Polygamy
44) “Vyakarana” is
a) Grammar b) Astronomy c) Ritual d) Jyothita
45) Who was the first to start caste movement in Maharashtra?
a) Jyothiba Phule b) B.R,Ambedkar c) Tilak d) Atmaram Pandurang
46) Which of the following was not responsible for the spread of Buddhism?
a) Language of the people was used
b) No caste barrier
c) No sacrifice
d) Too much stress on morality
47) Rivers familiar to Rig Vedic people are
!) Ganga 2) Yamuna 3) Saraswati 4) Sindhu
a) 1 & 2 b) 3&4 c) 2,3&4 d) 1,2,3 & 4
48) Give the correct order
a) Rishaba, Parsava, Mahavira, Bhadrabahu
b) Rishaba, Mahavira, Parsava, Bhadrababu
c) Rishaba, Parsava, Bhadrababu, Mahavira
d) Mahavira, Parasava, Rishaba and Badrabahu
49) Which of the following was added by Mahavira
a) Non -injury b) Non-possession c) Non-stealing d) continuance
50) Who presided over the Calcutta session of congress, when AITUC was founded?
a) Vijayaragavachari b) Lalalajpat Rai c) N.M..Joshi d) Gandhiji
51) Who started Doctrine of Lapse?
a) Warren Hasting b) Curzon c) Wellesley d) Dalhousie
52) Who among the following was not a leader of Revolt of 1857?
a) Nana sahib b) Rani Lakshmi Bai c) Kunwar singh d) Man singh
53) Awadh was annexed in 1856 who was the Nawab of Awadh at the time?
a) Begum of Awadh b) Maulvi Ahamaduallah c) Wajid Ali Shah d) Birjis Cadir
54) Who propounded the theory of “ Drain of Wealth”?
a) Dada Bai Naoroji b) Gandhi c) Nehru d) Tilak
55) Theosophical society was founded by
a) Madam H.P. Blavasky and Col H.S. Olcott
b) Madam cama
c) Annie Besant
d) Margret Nobel
56) Which freedom fighter did not accept “Drain theory”?
a) M.G.Ranade b) R.C.Dutt c).G.K.Gohale d) R.P.Dutt
57) Primary worship of Indus valley people was
a) Mother Goddess b) Pasupati Mahadeva c) Natural Worship d) Animal Worship
58) The battle of ten kings was fought on the bank of
a) River Parushni b) River Ganga c) River Saraswati d) River Yamuna
59) The oldest Sanskrit Grammar book is
a) Nirukta b) Astadhyayi c) Kalpa d) Silpasutra
60) Boghaz koi inscription refers to
a) Indra, Varuna,
b) Indra, Varuna, Mitra
c) Indra, Agni, Varuna
d) Indra,Varuna, Mitra,Nasatyas
61) The first fort the British constructed in India was the fort of
a) St.George b) St.William c) St.David d) St.Santhome
62) In 1856, which act, was passed by the British after prolonged efforts were made by Pandit Iswar Chandra Vidiyasagar
a) Abolition of sati b) Abolition Of Pardah System c) Promotion of Vedic education
e) Widow Re-marriage
63) Rule of East India Company in India ended in
a) 1833 b) 1813 c) 1853d) 1857
64). Who was the Governor General for the Introduction of Permanent Settlement in Bengal?
a) Lord corn Wallis b) Lord Bentinck c) Lord Wellesey d) Lord Canning
65) “ The aim of English Education in India was produced a class of persons who would be Indian in blood and colour, but English in taste, opinions morals and intellect”, who said this
a) Charles Trevelyan b) Lord Macaulay c) Lord William Bentinck d) Lord Canning
66) The Battle of Buxar was fought between
a) Mir qasim and The English
b) Mir qasim, Nawab Of Oudh and The Mughal Emperor ShahAlamII one party against the English
c) Mir Jafar and The English
d) Mir Quasim and The Dutch
67) Which European community established first trade link with India
a) Portuguese b) Dutch c) French d) British
68) Alauddin Khalji, Sikander Lodi, Shershah Suri and Akbar - they were well known in Medieval History of India for their contribution in the field of
1) Secular policy on state affairs
2) Land revenue system
3) Market reforms system
4) Military reforms system
select the correct code
a) 2 alone
b) 2 & 3
c) 1,2 &4
d) 2,3 &4
69)It is stated that one of the four veda contains a collection of sacrifices formulas what is the name of that veda
a) Rigveda b) Atharva Veda c) Sama Veda d) Yajur veda
70) who was / were the Guru’s of Buddha
a) Rudraka Ramputra
b) Arala Kalama
c) Raghula
d) a&b
71) It is stated that all the Monks(Bhikkhus) living in a monastery were expected to attend an assembly held
a) Every day
b) Every week
c) Every fortnight
d) Every month
72) Gautama Buddha developed the idea of renunciation by seeing person in different stages which one of the following stages was not included among them
a) An Old Man
b) A Grahastha
c) A Patient
d) An Ascetic
73) The fateful Battle of Plassey was fought on the
a) 23rd April 1757
b) 19th May 1757
c) 13th June 1757
d) 23rd June 1757
74) The recapture of Delhi by the East India Company broke the mutineers when did it take place?
a) 5th June 1857
b) 20th Sep 1857
c) 2nd Aug 1858
d) 17th June 1858
75)Who founded the Gurukulkangri at Haridwar
a) Dayanand
b) Lajpat Rai
c) Shradhanandha
d) Lal Hanjraj
76) Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(Books) (Authors)
A) Nibandha Mala 1) Dayanand Saraswati
B) Pecepts Of The Jesus 2) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
C) Gita Rahasya 3)Tilak
D) Satyartha Prakash 4) Vishnu Krishna Chiplukar
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 2 3 1
b) 4 2 1 3
c) 4 1 3 2
d) 3 1 4 2
77) Match List I With List II
List-I List-II
(Associations) (Founders)
A) Satya Mahima Dharma 1)Tulsi Ram
B) Social Service League 2) N.M.Joshi.
C) Dharma Sabha 3)Radha Kant Deb
D) Radha Swami Movement 4) Mukund Das
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 2 1 3
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 4 2 3 1
d) 2 1 3 4
78) The basic aim of Akali Movement in Punjab was
a) Protest against Hindhu rivalism
b) To spread modern education to the Sikhs
c) To liberate the Sikh Gurudawaars from the control of Mahantas
d) None of the above
79) Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(Acts) (Governor Generals)
A) Age of consent bill 1) Landsdowne
B) Abolition Of Sati 2) North Brooke
C) Widow Remarriage Act 3) Dalhousie
D) Native Marriage Act 4) William Bentick
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 4 2 3
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 2 4 3 1
d) 2 4 1 3
80) Founder of Swami Narain Sect was
a) Tulsidas
b) Jambekar
c) Sahajanand
d) Dayanand
81) Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(Associations) (Founders)
A) Sangat Sabha 1) Dr.Ambedkar
B) Vedanta College 2) K.C.Sen
C) Vedanta Societies 3) Vivekanda
D) Bahishkrit Hitkarni Sabha 4) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 2 3 1
b) 2 3 4 1
c) 2 4 3 1
d) 4 3 2 1
82) Chola Empire was known for their art and their architecture . among the four statements which one is not correct?
a) Lord Natraraja Statue is one of the magnificient work of the Cholas
b) “Oothuvars” were appointed in temples to enchant “Thevaram”
c) Dravida Style of architecture was originated during Chola period
d) 12th Tirumalai “Periapuranam” was compiled during Chola period
83) Battle of Takkolam was between
a) Rajaraja-I and Western Chalukyas
b) Rajendra-I and Western Chalukyas
c) Parantakai-I and Rashtrakutas
d) Aditya Chola and Pallavas
84) Which one of the state was not an ally of Bahmini Kingdom in the Battle of Talaikotta?
a) Bedar
b) Berar
c) Ahmednagar
d) Bijapur
85) Match list-I with list-II
List-I List-II
(Literary Works) (Authors)
A) Vinaya Patrika 1) Miruturya
B) Gauda Vaho 2) Sandhiya Karanandi
C) Rama Charita 3) Thulsidas
D) Prabandha sidhanata 4) Vakpati
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 3 1 2
b) 3 4 2 1
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 3 4 1 2
86) Malik Muhammad Jayasi, a court poet of Shershah Suri wrote Padmavati,. It deals with Alauddin Khalji’s love affair with Rani Padmini of Chittor. The literary work is in
a) Arabic
b) Persian
c) Urdu
d) Hindi
87) “Mahabasya” was written by Patanjali. He was the contemporary of
a) Chandra Gupta II
b) Ashoka
c) Pushyamitra Sunga
d) Vasudeva Kanva
88) Indo-Greeks, who ruled India in Post Maurayan period. They were well known for
a) Patronizing Buddhism
b) Issuing Gold Coins
c) Developing Music
d) Patronizing Bhagavatism
89) who was the founder of “Bharat Pur” city?
a) Gokla
b) Rajaram
c) Badan Singh
d) Surajmal
90) In which Nizam period Hyderabad was annexed with Union Of India
a) Nizam Ali
b) Wazir Ali
c) Osman Ali Khan
d) Salabat Jang
91) Rajendra Chola-I had war with Sailendra Dynasty , what was the primary motive for that?
a) To capture spice island
b) To influence over Bay Of Bengal
c) To display theirs navy power
d) To monopolise trade over china
92) Amerikkan Modal- Arabiyan Katalil ( throw the American model in to the Arabian sea) slogan was raised by the communist in the event of
a) Moplah Rebellion In 1921
b) Telengana Movement In 1946
c) August Offer In 1940
d) Punnapar-Vayalar Movement In 1946
93) Bijolia Peasant Movement took place in
a) Gujurat
b) Rajasthan
c) Central Province
d) Telengana
94) Who started Ahmedabad Textile labour association?
a) Gandhi
b) Lala lajpatrai
c) Tilak
d) Nehru
95) In which session of congress adopted “ Go Back to Simon” resolution?
a) Calcutta 1928
b) Madras 1927
c) Lahore 1929
d) Karachi 1931
96) Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(Secret Societies) (Founders)
A) Abinav Bharat 1) Bhagat Singh
B) Decca Anusleen Samriti 2) Vanji Iyer
C) Bharat Matha Association 3) V.D.Savarkar
D) Navjevan Sabha 4) Pulin Das
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 4 3 1 2
d) 3 4 2 1
97) Which pair is not correct?
a) Jinnah - Home Rule Movement
b) Gandhi - Khada Satyagraha
c) Tilak - Non Cooperation Movement
d) Motilal Nehru - Swaraj Party
98) Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(Nationalist) (Journalist)
A) Thiru Vi Ka 1) Kudi Arasu
B) S.A.Dange 2) Common Wheel
C) Annie Besant 3) Nav India
D) E.V.Ramaswamy Naicker 4) Indian Express
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 4 1 2 3
c) 3 4 2 1
d) 4 2 3 1
99) Who was the leader of “Ulgulan Movement”?
a) Ramsingh
b) Velu Thambi
c) Birsa Munda
d) Kitur Rayappa
100) Which pair is correct?
a) Fragment of Woven Cloth - Amri
b) Evidence of Lipstick - Harappa
c) Evidence of Chess Board - Lothal
d) Fire Altars- Chanhudara
101) Which one is the largest in Mohanjodara
a) Great Bath
b) Granary
c) Assembly Hall
d) Pasupati Mahadeva Statue
102) Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(Adhayakshas) (Department)
A) Akara 1) Comerece
B) Sutra 2) Accounts
C) Aksha Patala 3) Textiles
D) Panya 4) Mines
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 2 3 1 4
c) 4 3 1 2
d) 2 3 1 4
103) Which Rashtrakuta rulers associated with Jainism?
1) Krishna I
2) Govinda III
3) Amoghavarsha I
4) Krishna II
choose the correct code:
a) 2,3
b) 3 only
c) 3& 4
d) 1& 3
104) During (800 AD –1200AD) four major kingdom ruled India, they were known for better military system. Read the statement about them
1) Rashtrakuta maintained forts in good conditions
2) Pratiharas had good cavalry
3) Good quality of elephants were used in warfare by the Palas
4) Cholas had strong navy power
Choose the Correct Code
a) 2,3 & 4
b) 1 & 4
c) 4 only
d) 1,2,3 & 4
105) The first translator of Vyasa’s Mahabharata into Tamil was
a) Perun Devanar
b) Villiputhur Alvar
c) Kamban
d) Jayandontar
106) Which of the following statements are correct about Sangam Age of Tamil?
1) Kings had matrimonial relationship with Vellalas
2) Brahmanas were Non-Vegetarians
3) Chief revenue of the state was Trade and Commerce
4) The status of women was undermined
select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 alone
b) 1,3
c) 1,2,3
d) 1,2,4
107) what is the correct chronological sequence of the Governor Generals of British India
1) Lord Curzon
2) Lord Lansdowne
3) Lord Chemlsford
4)Lord Minto-II
select the correct answer using the code below
a) 2-1-3-4
b) 2-1-4-3
c) 1-2-3-4
d) 1-2-4-3
108) Who was the Chief Architect of 2nd Five Year Plans?
a) Harod-Domar
b) Mahalanobis
c) John Mathai
d) Gadgil
109) What is the correct chronological order
1) Federal Bank was renamed as Reserve Bank of India
2) First Five Year Plan was drafted
3) Imperial Bank was renamed as State Bank of India
4)Economic Resolution of Karachi Session of Congress
select the answer from the code given below
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 2-1-3-4
c) 4-1-2-3
d) 4-1-3-2
110) Which Sikh Guru popularized Gurumukhi scripts
a) Guru Nanak
b) Guru Ramdas
c) Guru Angad
d) Guru Tej Bahadur
111) Dahsala system of land revenue was introduced by Akbar?
a) 1580
b) 1575
c) 1590
d) 1602
112) According to Barani, how many provinces were during Alauddin khaljis’ reign?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 15
d) 20
113) Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(Departments) (Sultans)
A) Diwan-i - kohi 1) Firoz Tughlaq
B) Diwan-i - mushtakharaj 2) Balban
C) Diwan-i - arz 3) Alauddin Khalji
D) Diwan-i - kairat 4) Mohamad Tughlaq
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 4 3 1 2
d) 3 4 2 1
114) Which Mughal Emperor introduced du-aspa-sih-aspa method in Mansabdari system?
a) Akbar
b) Shahjahan
c) Aurangzeb
d) Jahangir
115) Which pair is not correct
a) Revolt of Salim-1605 AD
b) Revolt of Khusurav-1606 AD
c) Death of Abul Faizi-1595 AD
d) Death of Birbal-1580 AD
116) Which Bundela Chief murdered Abul Fazl in 1602 AD?
a) Jujhar Singh
b) Gokla
c) Badan Singh
d) Bir Singh
117) which is considered true ach in early Delhi Sultanate period?
a) Ali Darwaz
b) Iltumish Tomb
c) Balban’s Tomb
d) Qudub Minar
118) Give the correct order
a) Belgum Session of Congress - foundation of Swaraj Party - Chauri Churra Incidence - Nehru Report
b) Nehru Report - Chauri Churra Incident - Belgum Session of Congress - Foundation of Swaraj Party
c) Foundation of Swaraj Party - Belgum Session - Chauri Churra Incidence - Nehru Report
d) Chauri Churra Incidence - Foundation of Swaraj Party - Belgum Session of Congress - Nehru Report
119) In modern Indian history, Lucknow Pact 1916 is significance. which one of the
following statement is not correct regarding Lucknow Pact?
a) Muhammad Ali Jinnah, Annie Besant, Tilak were back bone of the pact
b) First Time Congress accepted communal representation for Muslims
c) Later Tilak critised the pact because of accepting communal representation
d) Congress and Muslim league agreed to stand on common platform to fight against British Imperialism
120) Last Ruler of Mauriya Dynasty was murdered by Pushya Mitra Sunga, which one is not
acceptable reason for the incident according to Historical evidence?
a) Anti Dhamma policy of the King
b) Anti Brahmin policy of the King
c) Fear of Foreign Invasion
d) Anti-People policy
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Answers:
1) a 2) d 3) b 4) a 5) d 6) d 7) b 8) d 9) b 10) c 11) d 12) a 13) c 14) b 15) c 16) d 17) d 18) d 19) b 20) a 21) c 22) d 23) b 24) b 25) c 26) a 27) c 28) d 29) c 30) a 31) a 32) c 33) a 34) b 35) a 36) a 37) a 38) b 39) d 40) c 41) d 42) a 43) a 44) a 45) a 46) d 47) d 48) a 49) d 50) b 51) d 52) d 53) c 54) a 55) a 56) c 57) a 58) a 59) b 60)d 61) a 62) c 63) d 64) a 65) b 66) b 67) a 68) a 69) d 70) d 71) c 72) b 73) d 74) b 75) c 76) a 77) c 78) c 79) b 80) c 81) c 82) c 83) c 84) b 85) b 86) d 87) c 88) b 89) c 90) c 91) d 92) d 93) b 94) a 95) b 96) d 97) c 98) c 99) c 100) c 101) b 102) a 103) c 104) d 105) a 106) d 107) b 108) b 109)c 110)c 111) a 112) b 113) b 114) d 115) d 116) d 117) c 118) d 119) c 120) a
C.S.E. INDIAN HISTORY - 2005(pre)
C.S.E. INDIAN HISTORY - 2005
(PRELIMINARY) .
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks: 300
1. An early translation of Bhagavat into Bengali was commissioned by Husain
Shah. Who undertook the translation work?
(a) Kavindra Parameswar (b) Maladhar Vasu
(c) Srikarana Nandi (d) Vidyapati
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List-I (Terms) List-II (Usage)
A. Dal al-shifa 1. Open area for equestrian exercises
B. Furusiyya 2. A hospital
C. Maydan 3. Imperial camp
D. Urdu-i Mualla 4. Open area for military parade
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
3. With reference to the Medieval period match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Places) List-II (Production)
A. Alwar 1. Oil and Perfume
B. Jaunpur 2. Sugar Candy
C. Kalpi 3. Glass
D. Lander 4. Woollen carpets
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 3 1 2 4
4. What did Nania and Malangi castes specialize in?
(a) Medium-distance trade in foodgrains
(b) Leather tann work
(c) Iron smelting and charcoal production
(d) Salt and saltpetre production
5. The rulers of Deccan adopted istava measures in the medieval period.
What did it mean?
(a) Grant of loans with no interest
(b) Concessional assessment of land revenue
(c) Cesses imposed for enlarging the army
(d) Actual collection of land revenue
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6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List-I (Terms) List-II (Meanings)
A Ayagars 1. Village servants
B. Karnam 2. Policeman
C. Maniyam 3. Accountaint
D. Talaiyari 4. Headman
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 1 2 4 3
7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List-I (Terms) List-II (Meanings)
A Haqq-i Shurb 1. Loans to peasants
B. Qismat 2. Water tax
C. Taqavi 3. Agrarian cesses
D. Uslub 4. Regulations
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 1 4
8. Who among the following recognised the important role played by women in
family and society in his preachings?
(a) Guru Nanak (b) . Sant Ravidas
(c) Sant Gyaneshwar (d) Sant Tukaram
9. Consider the following statements:
1. Naval expeditions of Rajaraja - I occupied parts of Burma, Malaya and
Sumatra.
2. Rajendra I conquered Ceylon.
3. The Cholas held northern Ceylon until they were expelled by Vijayabahu I.
4. The Cholas fell in the 13th century when their territory was shared by the
Hoysalas and Pandyas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 4 only
10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List-I (King) List-II (Dynasty)
A. Bhoja of Malwa 1. Chandela
B. Jayachandra 2. Gahadavala
C. Mihira Bhoja 3. Paramara
D. Paramardideva 4. Pratihara
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A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 4 1 3 2
11. In which one of the following temples did Ramanuja teach?
(a) Madurai (b) Mamallapuram
(c) Somnathpur (d) Srirangam
12. Consider the following statements:
1. There are no remains of free-standing Hindu temples erected before the
Gupta period.
2. All the cave at Ellora are of Hindu gods and goddesses.
3. The great temple of Shiva at Tanjore was built by Rajaraja, the Great.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 only
13. Consider the following statements:
1. During the Mughal period Mysore was the premier centre of silk production
and supplied the demands of both European and Indian merchants.
2. There was no ship-building industry in India during the Mughal period as
Europeans supplied ships to the Indians.
3. During the Mughaf period, saltpetre was exported from India by Dutch and
English traders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
14. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Ahmad Shah Bahamani : Hazrat Gesu Daraz
(b) Mahmud Begarha : Faizi Sarhindi
(c) Akbar : Abdur Rahim Khan-i Khanan
(d) Jahangir : Muhammad Salih
15. Which one of the following groups represents the correct composition of
Vijayanagar territory of Pondimandalam ?
(a) Madurai, Chindleput, South Arcot, Tirl.nelveli
(b) Chindleput, South Arcot, North Arcot, Tirunelveli
(c) Madurai, Ramanathapuram, Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari
(d) Ramanathapuram, Tirunelveli, North Arcot, Kanyakumari
16. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Chaitanya was a contemporary of Vallabhacharya
(b) Dadu Dayal started the practice of worship at the shrines of departed saints
(c) Tukaram was a contemporary of Shivaji
(d) Vallabhacharya advocated penance, self-mortification and renunciation of the
world
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17. Which one of the following poets wrote poems hailing the Russian
Revolution of 1917 ?
(a) Subramanya Bharati (b) Muhammad Iqbal
(c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Rabindranath Tagore .
18. Consider the following statements:
1. Although the First Five-Year Plan gave priority to Agriculture but there was
hardly any increase in the agricultural production at the end of the Plan
period.
2. The iron and steel plants at Bhilai, Rourkela and Durgapur were set up during
the First Five-Year Plan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
19. Consider the following statements:
1. Though the Constitution of India states that India is a Union of States, the
terms 'federal' and 'federation' are used in reference to India at several places
in the Constitution of India.
2. The First Schedule as adopted by the Constituent Assembly and incorporated
in the Constitution of India mentioned three categories' of States and
Territories i.e., Princely States, British Indian Provinces, Andaman and
Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a). 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. Consider the following statements:
1. Several of the Fundamental Rights incorporated in the Nehru Committee
Report appeared in the Constitution of India substantially 'unchanged.
20. Several of the social and economic rights mentioned in the 1931 Karachi
Resolution found expression in the Directive Principles of State Policy in the
Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
21. Who of the following was not included in the first Interim National
Government announced in August, 1946?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) C. Rajagopalachari (d) Jagjivan Ram
22. With reference to the Home Rule Movement during the Indian freedom
struggle, consider the following statements:
1. In his Home Rule Movement, Tilak linked up the question of Swaraj with the
demand for the formation of linguistic States and education in the vernacular.
2. At Allahabad, Jawaharlal Nehru joined Annie Besan:'s Home Rule League.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
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(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. With reference to the Swadeshi Movement during the Indian freedom
struggle, which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) The theme song of the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal was Rabindranath's
'Amar Sonar Bangia'
(b) Syed Haider Raza led the Swadeshi Movement in India
(c) The Ganapati and Shivaji festivals became a medium for
(d) The Surat split of the Congress in 1907 weakened the Swadeshi Movement
24. In order to advance the cause of English education in India, who among the
following introduced the regulation that all public s'ervices were to be filled
by an open competitive examination held by the Council of Education,
preference being given to the knowledge of English?
(a) Lord Wellesley (b) Lord William Bentinck
(c) Lord Hardings (d) Lord Dalhousie
25. Consider the following statements :
1. As per the Indian High Courts Act, High Courts were created in Calcutta,
Bombay and Madras by the amalgamation of the I Supreme Court and the
Sadar Diwani Adalat in 1861.
2. A Code of Civil Procedure & a Code of Criminal Procedure were
promulgated in 1867.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Which one of the following Muslim leaders joined the Home Rule League
founded by Annie Besant ?
(a) Muhammad Iqbal (b) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(c) Syed Ahmed Khan (d) Abul Kalam Azad
27. Who among the following introduced a scheme of administration which
centered around a class of officials called Commissioners, each of whom was
placed in charge of a division comprising several districts?
(a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Warren Hastings
(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord William Bentinck
28. Which one of the following was not included in the terms of the Gandhi-
Irwin Pact?
(a) Immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted for violence
(b) Payment of suitable compensation to the released prisoners
(c) Return of confiscated land not yet sold to third parties
(d) Remission of all fines yet not collected
29. In February 1943, while in jail, why did Gandhiji declare 21 days' fast?
(a) He wanted the people to stop violence in the Quit India Movement
(b) He was forcing the Hindu and Muslim separatists to shun divisive policies
and to strive for united India
(c) This was his answer to the Government which had been constantly exhorting
him to condemn the violence of the people during the Quit India Movement
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(d) This was a part. of his non-violence strategy of forcing the. British Government to
concede the Congress demand for complete independence of India
30. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Gandhiji suggested to the KhiIafat Committee that it should adopt a
programme of Non-Violent Non-Cooperation to protest against the
Government's unfavourable attitude
(b) In the Nagpur Session of the Congress in 1920, Motital Nehru moved the
resolution of Non-Cooperation
(c) The programme of Non-Cooperation included the surrender of honours and
titles
(c) After the Vijayawada Session of the Congress in 1921, charkhas were
popularized on a wide scale and Khadi became the uniform of the national
movement
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Sauraseni was the official language of the Mauryan court.
2. Apabhramsa was used in the Middle Ages by Jaina writers in Gujarat for
composing poetry.
3. Telugn was the court language of Vijayanagar under Krishna Devaraya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
32. Agnimitra known from the Kalidasa's drama MaJavikagnimitra was a
king of which one of the following dynasties?
(a) Maurya (b) Sunga
(c) Saka (d) Gupta
33. What was upavasatha in the Buddhist order?
(a) It was the resting place of the Buddhist monks in caves or viharas during
rainy period
(b) It was an act of confession of Buddhist monks when they assembled every
fortnight on the evenings of full and new moons
(c) It was an act of fasting for a specified period of time by Buddhist monks as a
punishment for the offences committed by them in their conduct .
(d) It was the vow taken by the newly admitted monk into the Buddhist order
34. Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
1. Dadu Dayal 2. Guru Nanak
3. Tulsidas
Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur
took over?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
35. What is the ideological approach of Jainism ?
(a) Anekanta (b) Advaita
(c) Avagaman (d) Pancha-sheela
36. Who was Alara Kalama?
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(a) A disciple of Buddha
(b) A prominent Buddhist monk
(c) A teacher of Buddha
(d) A ruler who renounced his throne for Buddhism
37. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Sravasti The capital of Kosala
(b) Rajgriha The capital of Magadha
(c) Vaishali The capital of Chedi
(d) Ujjain The capital of Avanti
38. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Chanda Pradyota Mahasena King of Vatsna
(b) Darshaka Successor to Ajatashatru
(c) Ajatashatru Follower of Ajivikas
(d) Prasenji King of Vajji Confederation
39. Consider the following statements:
1. In Rig Vedic time, the purohita was the foremost among the functionaries of
a king.
2. In Rig Vedic time, the king was the absolute owner of the land.
3. The system of espionage was not known to the kings of the Rig Vedic time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and.3
40. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) The Upanishads were compiled earlier than the Puranas
(b) The Upanishads believe in the transmigration of Soul
(c) The Upanishads contain instructive stories and conversations.
(d) There are no parables in the Upanishads
41. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The grama of the Rig Vedic Aryans usually refers to a group of kinsfold and
not a village
(b) The Aryans of early Vedic times tamed elephants and used them in war along
with horses
(c) The Rig Veda mentions the svayamvara and marriage of widows
(d) The Rig Veda mentions Vindhya and Satpura mountains and Narmada river
42. Which one of the following texts contains the earliest evidence on Indian
mathematical writings?
(a) Aranyaka (b) Ka/pasutra
(c) Nirukta (d) Sulvasutra
43. Which Indus Valley site has yielded evidence of use of a wooden coffin in
burial?
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Lothal (d) Kalibongan
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44. Match list-I (Ancient Finding)with list-II (Place of Finding) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
list -I list-II
A. Bronze dancing girl 1. Harappa
B. Persian gulf seal 2. Lothal
C. Grey stone male dancing figure 3. Mohenjodaro
D. Rows of fire altars 4. Kalibangan
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 2 1 4
45. Where has the prehistoric cultivated field been discovered in India?
(a) Lothal (b) Kalibangan
(c) Ropar (d) Dholavira
46. Which one of the following Harappan sites has yielded evidence of a
signboard inscription?
(a) Lothal (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Dholavira (d) Rakhigarhi
47. Which one of the following denotes a garment not prevalent during the
medieval period?
(a) Pravara (b) Qaba
(c) Jama (d) Sari
48. What is the Mitakshara of Vijnaneswar?
(a) A treatise on the system of medicine
(b) An exposition of the contemporary theatre
(c) A commentary on Hindu law
(d) A treatise on the South, Indian music
49. Consider the following statements:
1. The earliest Persian work on Indian Music - Ghunyat-ul-Munya was written in
the Court of Akbar.
2. Sangitopanishad Sarodhara - a treatise on music and dance was written by a
Jain scholar of Gujarat.
Which of the statements 'given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
50. What did the concept of Wahadat-al Wujud as supported by Akbar signify ?
(a) Purity of Islam (b) War against infidels
(c). Eradication of caste system (d) Unity of Being
51. Collection of which one of Man Kautuhal ?
(a) The portraits of Rajput rulers
(b) The musical melodies
(c) The technical contrivances of the Hindus
(d) Astronomical charts of Indian cities
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52. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of setting up of
English factories in India?
(a) Madras - Sutanuti - Surat – Hugli
(b) Madras - Surat - Sutanuti – Hugli
(c) Surat - Hugli - Madras – Sutanuti
(d) Surat - Madras - Hugli - Sutanuti
53. What was the main content of the Treaty of Deogaon concluded at the end of
1803 ?
(a) Bhonsle Raja of Berar ceded to the English the Province of Cuttack including
Balasore, and the whole of his territory west of the river Warda
(b) Sindhia ceded to the English all his territories between the Ganges and
Jamuna, and his first and territories to the north of the Rajput principalities,
Jaipur, Jodhpur and Gohad
(c) Holkar gave up all claims to Tonk, Rampura, Bundi, Kooch, Bundelkhand
and places north of the Chambal
(d) Baji Rao II renounced the post of Peshwa and the headship of the Maratha
confederacy
54. Consider' the following statements with reference to British rule in India:
1. In 1780, the manufacture of salt was directly taken up by the Government.
2. In 1786, the Collector in each District of Bengal was made responsible for
settling the revenue and collecting it
3. In 1790, the Decennial Settlement of land revenue was declared permanent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
55. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
1. Battle of Bedara : Rear Admiral Boscawen
2. Battle of Wandiwash : General Coote
3. Battle of Buxar : Major Hector Munro
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
56. Who among the following was India's Defence Minister when the Chinese
invaded the northern part of India in 1962 ?
(a) Morarji Desai (b) V K. Krishna Menon
(c) T. T. Krishnamachari (d) Jagjivan Ram
57. Consider the following statements:
1. In Bombay. S. A. Dange published a pamphlet 'Gandhi and Lenin' and started
the first socialist weekly 'The Socialist'.
2. In Bengal, Muzaffar Ahmed brought out 'Navyug' and later founded the
'Langal' with the cooperation of the poet Nazrul Islam. .
3. In Madras, M. Singaravelu founded the 'Labour-Kisan Gazette'. .
Which of the statements giver above are correct? :
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(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) I, 2 & 3
58. Which Session of tile Indian NationalCongress approved. the 'Gandhi-Irwin
Pact' ?
(a) Karachi Session (b) Lahore Session
(c) Calcutta Session (d) Tripura Session
59. Consider the following:
1. Asaf Ali 2. Bhulabhai Desai
3. Jawaharlal Nehru 4. Tej Bahadur Sapru
Who among the above took up the defence of the lNA prisoners in the court
at the Red Fort trials?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) I, 3 and 4 (d) I, 2, 3 and 4
60. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) When Portuguese landed at Calicut in 1498, Narasa Nayaka chastised
Zamorin and expelled the Portuguese from there
(b) Pedro Alvarez Cabral captured the port of Goa in 1510
(c) When Portuguese captured the port of Goa froll) the Bijapur Sultanate,
Vijayanagar rulers sided with Bijapur
(d) When Mughal forces laid siege to Sambhaji's Kalyan, Portuguese helped
Mughals with provisions
61. What was Ganj-i Sawai ?
(a) A manuscript containing astronomical observations of Sawai Jai Singh
(b) The chief market place in the town of Sawai Madhopur
(c) A large cannon fitted ship belonging to Aurangzeb
(d) The most important custom post near Surat managed by the Mughal rulers
62. Consider the following statements:
1. It was from Pala Empire that Buddhism was introduced into Tibet. .
2. The Senas of Bengal were anti-Buddhist.
3. The Solankis who ruled Gujarat, patronized Jainism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Directions: The following 10 (TEN) items consist of two statements: one labelled
as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two
statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given
below:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both
A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
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63. Assertion (A): The Tamil literary works had a prosperous period during the
fifteenth and sixteenth centuries.
Reason (R) : Vijayanagar rulers had a special preference for the Tamil language
and literature.
64. Assertion (A): Azam Shah requested Shahu to take charge of Narmada region
during his absence from Maharashtra.
Reason (R) : It was felt that Shahu's presence in the region would weaken
Tarabai and safeguard Mughal possessions during Azam's absence.
65. Assertion (A): In medieval India, screw making was undertaken by soldering a
piece of wire on an iron nail.
Reason (R) : The technology of lathe-work was not known to the Indians.
66. Assertion (A): Akbar removed Adham Khan from his office and appointed Pir
Muhammad in his place as Governor of Malwa.
Reason (R): Adham Khan did not send the spoils of the conquest to Akbar.
67. Assertion (A): Haji Iliyas of Bengal was defeated by Firuz Shah Tughlaq but the
Sultan returned to Delhi without annexing Bengal.
Reason (R): There was a sudden invasion of Mongols on the North-West
Frontier.
68. Assertion (A): The Cabinet Mission rejected the Muslim League's demand for a
separate State of Pakistan.
Reason (R):The Cabinet Mission felt that a separate State of Pakistan would
contain a large proportion of non-Muslim population, and a sizeable population
of Muslims would be left in India.
69. Assertion (A): On the death of Qutb-ud-din Aibak, Aram Shah proclaimed
himself as the Sultan of Delhi by suppressing the other contenders to the throne.
Reason (R): There were no fixed rules governing the succession to the Crown in
the Turkish system.
70. Assertion (A): At the height of the Swadeshi Movement, communal riots broke
out in Bengal
Reason (R): Nawab Salimullah of Decca led the Muslim' peasantry of Bengal
against the Hindu Zamindars.
71. Assertion (A): Within half a century of the Battle of Plassey, the phenomenal
prosperity of Bengal suffered a serious setback.
Reason (R): The manufacture of cotton goods, the most important commodity of
export from India, increased in other parts of India while it declined in Bengal.
72. Assertion (R): The English Company was granted Diwani Rights of Bengal,
Bihar and Orissa in 1765 but the actual collection of revenue for the first few
years was left in the hands of Indians.
Reason (R): The English lacked the knowledge of revenue matters in India.
73. Consider the following statements:
1. Brahman,;;Is were exempted from execution or death penalty in all the
ancient Indian scriptures, texts and law books.
2. Dayabhaga, a treatise on inheritance was writtett by Jimutavahana of 12th
century.
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3. The Arthashastra deals with crime and punishment and suggests many forms
of execution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
74. Gautamiputra Satakarni is known largely because of the inscriptions
recorded by his mother. Which one of the following is the associated place?
(a) Hathigumpha (b) Nanaghat
(c) Nasik (d) Kanheri
75. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Rashtrakutas : Devagiri (b) Pallavas: Madurai
(c) Yadavas: Manyakheta (d) Satavahanas: Pratisthana
76. Which one of the following is the correct statement about the Sangam
society of ancient South India?
(a) Slavery was not known to them
(b) The practice of Sati did not exist there
(c) The saqed marital threat Tali was unknown to them
(d) The women had no claim to the royal throne there
77. Which one among the following is the oldest stupa ?
(a) Stupa of Sanchi (b) Stupa of Bharhut
(c) Stupa of Piprawah (d) Stupa of Amaravati
78. Who was the hero of the literary work Silappadikaram ?
(a) Karikala Chola (b) Senguttuvan Chera
(c) Nedunjeliyan (d) Segannan Chola
79. Kanishka convened the Fourth Buddhist Council which prepared an
encyclopaedia of the Buddhist philosophy. What was this known as?
(a) Mahavarya (b) Prajnaparamita Sutra
(c) Ariyasacca (d) Mahavibhasha
80. Who among the following left an inscription which records reconstruction of
a great artificial lake in Kathiawar?
(a) Gautamiputra Satakarni (b) Kanishka
(c) Nahapana (d) Rudradaman
81. Which Indo-Greek ruler is referred to in the Besanagar (Vidisha) Pillar
inscription?
(a) Antialcidas (b) Minander
(c) Demetrius. (d) Heliodorus
82. Who among the following was a renowned Pasupata Acharya ?
(a) Shantinatha (b) Sreekarapandita
(c) Udyotakara (d) Purnakashyapa
83. Which one of the following epigraphs is significant for the history of
Bhagavatism ?
(a) Mathura Pillar Inscription
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(b) Besanagar Pillar Inscription
(c) Rumindei Pillar Inscription
(d) Talagunda Pillar Inscription
84. Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence?
(a) Ashtadhyayi -. Buddhacharita - Kathasaritsagara Meghaduta
(b) Ashtadhyayi - Buddhacharita - Megfiaduta Kathasaritsagara
(c) Buddhacharita - Ashtadhyayi - Meghaduta Kathasaritsagara
(d) Buddhacharita - Ashtadhyayi - Kathasaritsayara Meghaduta
85. According to I-tsing, where did Sri Gupta construct a temple for the Chinese
Buddhist pilgrims?
(a) Purushapura (b) Mrigasikhavana
(c) Taxila (d) Lumbinivana
86. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The earliest Indian coins bore no inscriptions
(b) Satavahanas of Deccan made coins of lead
(c) Guptas issued rupakq, the silver coins
(d) Gold coinage in India was started by Harshavardhana
87. Consider the following:
1. Kalidasa, 2. Bharvi
3. Bhasa
Who among the above belong to gupta age?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
88. Consider the following statements:
1. Sikandar Lodi changed his residence from Delhi to Agra.
2. The personal retainers of the great Amirs were appointed by Sikandar Lodi
himself.
3. Sikandar Lodi abolished duties on crop of corn.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
89. Match List-I (Literary Work) with List-II (Scholar)and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I. A Hammir Rasau
A. Hammir Rasau 1. Allasani Peddana
B. Pampa Ramayana 2. Jayadeva
C. Prasanna Raghava 3. Naga
D. Sarvochisa Mancharitra 4. Chandra Sarangadhara
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
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90. What was the duty assigned to Mustakharaj under Alaud-din Khalji ?
(a) To measure the land of peasants and to fix the revenue share of the State
(b) To collect the unrealised balance of land revenue from the peasants
(c) To punish the revenue officials indulging in corruption
(d) To spy on the merchants and traders and to ensure that prices fixed by the
State were followed
91. Match List-I (Officials of Delhi Sultanate) with List-II (Duties/Jobs) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List II
A Barid-i Mumalik 1. Dealing with royal correspondence
B. Dabir-i Khas 2. Commanding Sultan's bodyguards
C. Sar-i Jandar 3. Heading the State news and
Information agency
D. Wakil-I Dar 4. Controlling and supervising the royal
household
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 3 4 2 1
92. Who among the following wrote the drama Usparinaya which describes the
marriage of Usha with Aniruddha?
(a) Ganga Devi (b) Madhava Vidyaranya
(c) Krishna Devaraya (d) AIlasani Peddana
93. With reference to the Mughal administration, which ('De of the following
statements is not correct ?
(a) The Mughal artillery was under the charge of Mir-i-Atish (b) Supervision
over the lands granted by the Emperors or
(b) Princes to pious men, scholars and monks was under the charge of the Chief
Sadr
(c) The imperial household was under the charge of Mir Manzil
(d) The censorship of public morals was under the charge of Muhtasib
94. Which one of the following buildings is not located in Fatehpur Sikri?
(a) Buland Darwaza (b) Anup Talao
(c) Qila-i-Kuhna Mosque (d) Panch Mahal
95. What was the function of the official called Karori under Akbar's
administration?
(a) Collection of revenue
(b) Maintaining royal treasury
(c) Maintaining the account of foreign. trade
(d) Working as scribe for royal correspondence
96. Through which one of the following, the king exercised his control over
villages in the Vijayanagar Empire?
(a) Dannayaka (b) Sumanta
(c) Nayaka (d) Mahanayakacharya
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97. Which one of the following is not connected with the description of the
Vijayanagar Kingdom?
(a) Amuktamalyada (b) Manucharitam
(c) Prabodha Chandrodava (d) Rehla
98. Who among the following rulers of Gujarat was treacherously drowned by
the Portuguese when he was on board his ship?
(a) Mahmud Begarha (b) Muhammad Shah
(c) Bahadur Shah (d) Husain Shah
99. Who among the following founded the city of Jaunpur?
(a) Ala-ud-din Khalji (b) Muhammad Tughlaq
(c) Firuz Tughlaq (d) Khizr Khan Sayyid
100. Who among the following introduced the dahsaJa system of land revenue
collection for the first time?
(a) Babar (b) Humayun
(c) Akbar (d) Shahjahan
101. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List-I (Ancient Town) List-II (Modern State)
A. Ajayameru 1. Assam
B. Bhrigukaccha 2. Gujarat
C Pragjyotisa 3. Orissa
D. Sisupalgarh 4. Rajasthan
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 4 2 1 3
102. Which one of the following deals with the schemes of Chanakya to foil the
designs of a minister of the last of the Nandas, and to place Chandragupta
Maurya on the throne?
(a) Mricchakatika (b) Mudrarakshasa
(c) Pratijnayaugandharayana (d) Vikramolvasiyam
103. What was the reason for Gandhiji to organize a Satyagraha on behalf of the
peasants of Kheda ?
(a) Non-suspension of land revenue collection in spite of a drought
(b) Enhancement of land revenue in spite of failure of crops
(c) Confiscation of the land of those who did not pay the land tax by the British
administration
(d) The proposal of the administration to introduce 'permanent settlement' in
Gujarat
104. Consider the following statements:
1. In 1918, Tilak and Gandhi toured villages to raise money and men for the
British World War effort.
2. By the Lucknow Pact, the Muslim leaders accepted under-representation in
Muslim majority areas in return for overrepresentation in some provinces.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
105. With reference to the Indian Councils Act of 1909, Consider the following
statements:
1. The Act formally introduced for the first time the principle of elections to the
legislative councils.
2. The Government of India was given general power of disallowing
politically dangerous candidates.
3. The income qualifications for the Muslim voters were lower than those for
the Hindus.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
106. Which one of the following first suggested boycott of the British goods in
Bengal?
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh's journal 'Bande Mataram'
(b) Krishna Kumar Mitra's weekly 'Sanjivani'
(c) Motilal Ghosh's 'Amrit Bazar Patrika'
(d) Sat ish Chandra Mukherji's 'Dawn'
107. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Siraj-ud-din Ahmed: Zamindar
(b) Lal Chand: Self-abnegation in politics
(c) Tej Bahadur Sapru: Tribune
(d) Abul Kalam Azad: AI-Hilal
108. Consider the following statements: Count de Lally, the French commander
failed against the English in India because
1. the home authorities in France did not recognize the importance of securing
political power in India.
2. the French were inferior to the English in naval strength.
3. there was discord between the French commanders of land and sea forces.
4. the English heavily bribed some important French officers.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
109. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List-I (Monument) List-II (Builder)
A. Arhai-Din-Ka-Jhompro at Ajmer 1. Ala-ud-din Khalji
B. Hauz-i-Khas at Dehli 2. IItutmish
e. Fortress of Adilabad 3. Muhammad Tughlaq
D. Jami Masjid at Badaun 4. Qutb-ud-din Aibak
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A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 3 2 4 1
110. In the context of 1857 Revolt, the causes that led to the Sepoy Mutiny were
1. the disparity in number of European and Indian troops in the British Indian
Forces.
2. the General Service Enlistment Act ordering all recruits to the Bengal Army
to be ready for service both within and outside India.
3. the introduction of the Enfield rifle.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
111. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Work)
Madhusudan Dutt 1. Meghnad-badh Kavya
Bankim Chandra 2. Devi Chaudhurani
Dinabandhu Mitra 3. Neeldarpan
4. Grammar of Bengali Language
A B C A B C
(a) 4 2 1 (b) 1 2 3
(c) 4 3 1 (d) 1 3 2
112. Consider the following statements:
1. The cancellation of regulations concerning Indian Press by Sir Charles
Metcalfe liberated it from official control during the period 1835-1857.
2. Under the Newspaper Act of 1908, the District Magistrate was empowered to
confiscate the printing press where a newspaper containing an incitement to
violence was printed.
3. The Indian Press Act of 1910 was suspended by the Government of India
during the World War I, so as to seek cooperation of Indian nationalists for
war efforts.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
113. Who among the following was in the forefront of making efforts leading to
making the Age of Consent Act, 1891 ?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (b) Kesab Chandra Sen
(c) B. M. Malabari (d) Swami Vivekananda
114. Consider the following statements with reference to Wood's Despatch:
1. Institution of a regular system of scholarship to enable meritorious students
to pursue the higher courses of study.
2. Helping the educational institutions founded by private efforts to obtain
grants from government funds.
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3. Provision of moral and religious education as an important component of
curriculum.
Which of the above were the features of Wood's Despatch?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
115. Who among the following was a founder of Widow Marriage Association in
1861 ?
(a) Devendranath Tagore
(b) Mahadev Govinda Ranade
(c) Surendranath Banerjee
(d) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
116. Match List-I (Commission/Act/Despatch) with List-II (Year) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List- II
A. Wood's Despatch 1. 1919
B. Hunter Commission 2. 1904
C Universities Act 3. 1882
D. Sadler Commission 4. 1854.
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 3 4 1
117. Consider the following statements:
1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy opposed the Permanent Settlement in Bengal.
2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy advocated the substitution of Persian for English as
the official language of the courts of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
118. Consider the following statements:
Under Todar Mal's bandobast in Akbar's administration
1. the State was to advance loans to the cultivators which could be paid in easy
annual installments.
2. remissions of revenue were granted in bad season.
3. the revenue collectors were required to write officially annual reports about
the work, character and integrity of their subordinates.
4. the accounts were to be kept in Hindi.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
119. Consider the following statements:
1. By Pitt's India Act, the members of the Governor-General's Council were
reduced to three.
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2. Pitt's India Act abolished the monopoly of the Company's Indian trade.
3. By Pitt's India Act, through a supplementary Act, the Governor General was
empowered to hold the office of Commander-in Chief in special cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
120. Which one of the following is not correct regarding the chief clauses of the
Regulating Act of 1773 ?
(a) The civil and military government and the management of all territorial
acquisitions and revenues in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa, were vested in the
Governor-General at Fort William, assisted by four Councilors
(b) The Governor-General in Council at Fort William was given the power of
superintending the administration of the Presidencies of Madras and Bombay
(c) The President of the Board of Control exercised all powers relating to
supervising the Indian colony and the Court of Directors merely retained the
right of making appointments
(d) A Supreme Court consisting of a Chief Justice and three Judges was set up at
Fort William to deal with all cases of crime
(ANSWERS - 2005)
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12 (a)
13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (d)
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23 (c) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28 (b) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35 (a) 36. (c)
37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (d) 41. (a) 42. (d)
43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (c)
49. (b) 50. (d) 51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (b)
55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (a)
67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (a) 71. (c) 72. (a)
73. (a) 74. (c) 75 (d) 76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (b)
79. (d) 80. (d) 81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (b)
85. (b) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (d)
97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (c) 100. (c) 101. (d) 102. (b)
103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (a)
109. (c) 110. (b) 111. (b) 112. (a) 113. (c) 114. (a)
115 (b) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (c) 120. (c)
Public Administration 2005 (pre) question paper
C.S.E. PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION - 2005
(PRELIMINARY)
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks :300
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Shri Jagjivan Ram was appointed as the Chairman of the Central Social
Welfare Board when it was set up in 1953.
2. The National Commission for Women was set up as a national apex statutory
body in 1992.
3. The National Institute of Public Co-operation and Child Development is an
autonomous body and functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3
2. Which one among the following is associated with the, 'Report of Public
Administration' and the 'Report on Efficient Conduct of State Enterprise'?
(a) The Ayyangar Committee, 1949
(b) The Secretariat Reorganization Committee, 1947
(c) The Gorwala Report, 1951
(d) The Appleby Reports, 1953 and 1956
3. Whi~h one of the following is the correct chronological order of the
following Commissions/Committees in India during the British. Rule?
(a) The Aitchison Commission - The Tottenham Committee –
The Lee Commission - The Islington Commission
(b) The Lee Commission - The Islington Commission
The Aitchison Commission - The Tottenham Committee
(c) The Aitchison Commission -The Islington Commission
The Lee Commission - The Tottenham Committee
(d) The Lee Commission - The Tottenham Committee
The Aitchison Commission - The Islington Commission
4. Match items in the List I (Country) with those in the List II (Features of
Civil Service) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
A U.S.A. 1. Tradition of administrative centralization is
undergoing change
B Great Britain 2. The office of Personnel Management is an
independent agency under the President
C France 3. 'Next Steps' programmes sought to transform
structure of management of the civil service
D Japan 4. Bureaucratic elitism is reinforced by educational
and employment system
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A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
5. Consider the following statements in respect of the civil services in the USA?
1. All Federal posts are recruited on the basis of merit.
2. Hatch Acts prohibited partisan political activities of civil servants.
3. There are short-term political appointments and permanent career services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only
6. Match items in the List I (Types of Training) with those in the List II
(Features) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
A Vestibule 1. It involves frequent re-assignment to training
different divisions of the organization
B. Retraining 2. It has a specific job - centred focus & includes
formal instructions
C. Circular training 3. It involves a series of introductory lectures
followed by inspection trips to the departments
and field stations to provide first-hand
knowledge
D. Induction training 4. It involves instruction in a new field of
specialization or an extensive training in the old
field of specialization
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 4 3 2
7. Who among the following gave initial impetus, evolution of organizational
development (OD)?
(a) Robert Merton (b) David Hume
(c) Kurt Lewin (d) W. D. Ross
8. In which of the following countries does rank classification prevail?
1. France 2. England 3. Canada
4. USA 5, India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 5
9. Which of the following are the functions of civil services in a developing
society?
1. Deciding policies 2. Drafting legislative bills
3. Pre-audit 4. Framing departmental legislation
5. Administration adjudication
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Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
10. In accordance with the managerial grid developed by Robert Blake and Jane
Mouton, which one of the following implies the leadership style that has a
high degree of concern for people and a low degree of concern for
production?
(a) Impoverished management
(b) Country club management
(c) Team management
(d) Middle of the road management
11. In the context of Likert's system of leadership styles in management, match
items in the List I (Approach) with List II (Attributes) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
Autocratic 1. Structured decisions
Benevolent 2. Team decisions
Consultative 3. Traditional decisions
Participative 4. Friendly climate for decisions
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 3 1 4 2
12. Match items in the List I (Management Thinker) with those in the List II
(Concept) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
A Herbert Simon 1. Job enrichment
B. F.W. Taylor 2. Contribution – satisfaction equilibrium
C. Frederick Herzberg 3. Bounded rationality
D. C. I. Barnard 4. Functional foremanship
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 4. 2 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
13. Which one of the following best describes the relationship between policies
and procedures in an organization?
(a) Policy and procedure offer equal discretion in decision making
(b) Procedures are laid down before the policies are adopted
(c) Policies are more stable than the procedures
(d) Procedures may be same for all departments within al organization while the
policies might differ
14. In a traditional autocratic system, the manager would specify both the
standards for performance and the methods for achieving them. In a
participative management system, which of the following is specified by a
manager?
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(a) Only the methods for achieving the standards performance
(b) Neither the standards of performance nor the methods for achieving them
(c) Both the standards of performance and the methods for achieving them .
(d) Only the standards of performance
15. Consider the following statements:
Contractual employment in public employment has been advocated because:
1. it is a project work of a purely temporary nature to be completed in specified
time.
2. it requires specialised skills and inputs for short duration.
3. it is a legitimate and accepted form of employment.
4. it is required for purposes of lateral entry for various positions. at senior
level.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
16. Match List I (Terms) with List II (Defined by) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
Consolidated Fund of India 1. Article 110
Money Bill 2. Article 267
Annual Financial Statement 3. Article 266
Contingency Fund of India 4. Article 265
5. Article 112
A B C D A B C D
(a) 5 1 4 2 (b) 3 2 5 1
(c) 5 2 4 1 (d) 3 1 5 2
17. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act introduced a new part IX A in the
Constitution of India.
2. The provisions of the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act also apply to the
Scheduled Areas & Tribal Areas governed by Article 244 (1) and (2) of the
Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act specifies the manner and procedure
of election of the Chairperson of a Municipal Corporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
18. When were 17 Departmental Related Standing Committees set up in India
on the recommendations of the Rule Committee of the Lok Sabha?
(a) 1964 (b) 1977
(c) 1990 (d) 1993
19. In which one of the following countries is the 'Doctrine of Co-directorship'
prevalent as a method of control over administration?
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(a) U.S.A. (b) France
(c) Switzerland (d) Germany
20. Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of the
administrative levels in a State?
(a) Secretariat - Directorate - Divisional – District
(b) Directorate - Secretariat - Divisional – District
(c) Secretariat - Divisional - District – Directorate
(d) District - Divisional - Directorate - Secretariat
21. Consider the following Committees appointed in India to examine and
report on local governments:
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
2. Ashok Mehta Committee
3. Smt. Daya Choubey Committee
4. R.K. Khanna Committee
Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence in which these
Committees were set up?
(a) 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 (b) 1 - 4 - 3 - 2
(c) 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 (d) 1 - 3 - 4 - 2
22. In the post-independence period the Government appointed several
committees and commissions to improve the urban local bodies. Some of
them are:
1. Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
2. Taxation Enquiry Commission
3. National Commission on Urbanization
4. Local Finance Enquiry Committee
Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence in which the
above committees and commissions were set up?
(a) 1-2-4-3 (b) 4-3-1-2
(c) 1 - 3 - 4 - 2 (d) 4 - 2 - 1 - 3
23. When was the first municipal corporation in India at Madras set up?
(a) 1587 (b) 1687
(c) 1787 (d) 1887
24. Consider the following statements:
1. Game theory highlights the explicit role of human relationship and
interactions in decisions
2. Methods on decision making based on heuristic principles proceed along
empirical lines.
3. Dynamic nature of organizational objectives is one of the reasons for
decision making characterized by bounded rationality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Directions: The following 6 (SIX) items consist of two statements: one
labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other III as 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items
using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
25. Assertion (a): In spite of changes having taken place in the administrative
scenario, heart burning between 'generalists' and 'specialists'
continues.
Reason (R) The requirements of economic and technological development
have drastically changed the ratio-relationship between
'generalists' and 'specialists'
26. Assertion (a): H.A. Simon was the first to give a meaningful analysis of the
decision making process.
Reason (R) Classical thinkers like Fayol and Urwick did not see decisionmaking
as an all-pervasive concept. .
27. Assertion (a): McGregor's Theory Y is based on the external control of
human behaviour.
Reason (R) Theory Y is characterized by decentralization of authority.
28. Assertion (a): State Five-Year plans and annual plans have to be approved by
the Planning Commission.
Reason (R) Membership of National Development Council consists of the
Prime Minister as the Chairman, all Union Cabinet Ministers,
Chief Ministers of all States and representatives of the Union
Territories.
29. Assertion (a): The Chief Secretary of a State acts as the ex-officio Secretary
to the Council of Ministers in the State.
Reason (R) The powers and functions of Chief Secretary of a State are
.listed in the Constitution of India.
30. Assertion (a): If in a cut motion during discussion of demands for grants In
the Annual Financial Statement, the reduction demanded is
either in the form of a lump sum or omission or reduction of an
item in the demand, the motion which enables such cut is
known as 'Economy Cut'.
Reason (R) The motion in the above case represents disapproval of the
policy underlying the demand.
31. Which one among the following is not a function of the State Secretariat?
(a) To assist a Minister in the formulation of policy
(b) To act as channel of communication.
(c) To prepare drafts of the legislation to be introduced in the Legislative
Assembly
(d) To assist the legislature In secretarial work
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32. Which one of the following was recommended by the Administrative
Reforms Commission regarding Directorates?.
(a) The distinction between the Secretariat as the policy making body and the
Directorate as the executive agency should be abolished
(b) The Directors must be granted ex-officio status as Secretaries
(c) There should be liberal delegation of powers from the Secretariat to the
Directorate
(d) There should be uniformity in the powers delegated to all the Directorates
33. Consider the following statements: Lord Ripon's resolution of 1882 provided
new life to the local bodies, which were later hampered by several factors,
such as
1. hostile attitude of Lord Curzon towards local bodies.
2. obstructive tactics of the bureaucracy.
3. sudden expansion of elected non-officials.
4. reduction of official control of Deputy Commissioners.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
34. Match List I (Institutions) with List U.(Articles of Constitution) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A Comptroller & Auditor General of India
B. Finance Commission
C. Administrative Tribunals
D. Union Public Service Commission
list II
1. Article 315
2. Article 280
3. Article 148
4. Article 323 (A)
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 4 2 3
35. Which of the following statements are correct about the post of Cabinet
Secretary?
1. He works under the direct control of Prima Minister.
2. He is usually the seniormost civil servant of the country.
3. The official warrant of precedence gives him the first place among the civil
servants.
4. He is the head of the Cabinet Secretariat.
5. This office was created in 1950.
Select the correct answer using the- codes gjven below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
36. Which one of the following government documents first suggested for having
elections of Panchayati Raj Institutions on political party basis?
(a) Report of the Administrative Reforms Commission
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee Report
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(c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report
(d) Diwakar Committee Report
37. A metropolitan committee can be set up in an area having population
(a) 3 lac - 4.99 lac (b) 5 lac - 9.99 lac
(c) Up to 10 lac (d) Above 10 lac.
38. Which of the following functions are performed by a Gram Sabha?
1. All public problems are discussed.
2. Village budget and programmes are framed.
3. Beneficiaries of various government programmes are identified.
4. In order to keep a watch on the panchayats, a Vigilance Committee is
constituted.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
39. Which of the following are included in the non-tax revenue of the municipal
bodies?.
1. Toll on new bridge.s 2. Fees and fines
3. Income from enterprises 4. Octroi
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
40. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the finances
of urban local government?
(a) They can apply for loans from State Government, Union Government, World
Bank or other international agencies
(b) Their borrowing powers are defined in the Municipal Act
(c) Most of the urban local bodies are dependent on finances provided by the
State Government
(d) State Government charges interest on loans and decides time limit for its
repayment
41. Consider the following with reference to 73rd Constitution Amendment in
respect of Panchayati Raj
1. Direct elections of members at all levels.
2. Direct elections of chairpersons at the village level.
3. Indirect election of chairpersons at the intermediate levels and district levels.
4. Mandatory provision for holding elections.
Which of the above are the provisions of the 73rd Constitution Amendment in
respect of Panchayati Raj?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
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42. Which of the following are the common compulsory provisions of the 73rd
and 74th Constitution Amendment Act?
1. Five yearly elections
2. Reservation for backward classes
3. Reservation for women 4. Nagar Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
43. Which one of the following provisions has been left to the will of the State
Governments in the 73'd Constitution Amendment Act?
(a) Providing reservation to the Backward Classes
(b) All posts at all levels to be filled by direct elections
(c) Reservation. of seats for SC/ST in proportion to their population
(d) Reservation up to 1/3 seats for women in panchayats
44. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were
stressed in World Bank Report of
(a) 1992 (b) 1997
(c) 2000 (d) 2003
45. Which one of the following is not upheld by New Public Administration?
(a) Value based approach (b) Dogmas of efficiency and economy
(c) Social equity in service delivery (d) Relevant research
46. Which one of the following is mainly discussed in "The Next Society" by
Peter Drucker?
(a) Demographics' (b) New economy
(c) Knowledge society (d) Information techno-society
47. Consider the following statements:
Coordination in an organisation is necessary to
1. stop growing tendency towards empire building.
2. avoid conflicts or overlapping in the work of the employees.
3. concentrate on one aspect of work.
4. achieve the goals of an organisation effectively.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
48. Consider the following statements:
1. Estimates of expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India are
not submitted to the vote of the Parliament and there can be no discussion on
the same in either House of the Parliament.
2. Vote of credit is a grant approved by the Parliament in advance of the
detailed examination of various demands presented to it.
3. Token grants do not involve additional expenditure.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3
49. Match List I (Management Expert) with List II (Major Area) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
List I List II
A. Philip Kotler 1. Organizational change
B. Robert C Merton 2. Business process re-engineering
C. Michael Hammer 3. Derivative pricing formula
D. Peter M. Senge 4. Marketing Management
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4. 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
50. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 state cadres in all for the all-India services.
2. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions is the cadrecontrolling
authority for all the three all-India services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Consider the following statements:
1. If the Rajya Sabha has declared by resolution supported by not less than twothirds
of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in
the national interest to do so, Parliament may by law provide for the creation
of one or more all-India services.
2. Article 311 of the Constitution of India deals with the dismissal or removal of
a person who is a member of a civil service' of the Union or an all-India
service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a
State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. Which of the following organizations are under the administrative control of
the Department of Personnel and Training, the Ministry of Personnel,
Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India?
1. Central Vigilance Commission 2. Central Administrative Tribunal
3. Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration
4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy
5. Union Public Service Commission
6. Public Enterprises Selection Board
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 3, 4 and 5 (b) 5 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 (d) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
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53. Match List I (Institute) with List II (Location) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A Vaikunth Mehta National Institute of
Cooperative Management
B. Institute of Applied Manpower Research
C. National Institute of Rural Development
D. Defence Institute of Work Studies
List II
1. Hyderabad
2. Pune
3. Mussoorie
4. Kanpur
5. Delhi
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 5 1 3
(c) 3 5 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
54. Who among the following studied the impact of computers on the
hierarchical pyramid of an organization?
(a) John Rawls (b) John Pfiffner
(c) Elton Mayo (d) David Rusk
55. Consider the following statements:
1. The universal design theory of organization emphasizes on informal structure
of organization
2. The situational design theory of organization views an organization as a
closed system.
3. The traditional approach favours a rigid hierarchical structure of
organization.
4. The system approach favours a flexible participative structure of
organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
56. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Max Weber's model of
bureaucracy?
(a) Offices are arranged in the form of a hierarchy
(b) All organizational members are to be selected on the basis of technical
qualifications
(c) Control in the bureaucratic organization is based on personally applied rules
(d) Officials pursue their careers within the organization
57. Consider the following stages:
1. Politics - administration dichotomy
2. The humanistic challenge
3. Search for universal principles
4. New Public Administration
5. Focus on inter-disciplinary studies
6. Paradigm shifts
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above stages of
historical evolution of Public Administration as a discipline?
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(a) 1 - 3 - 2 - 5 - 4 - 6 (b) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1 - 6 - 5
(c) 1 - 2 - 3 - 5 - 4 - 6 (d) 4 - 3 - 5 - 1 - 6 - 2
58. Which one of the following statements is correct about the difference
between supervision and span of control?
(a) Supervision is directing and guiding the subordinates, while span of control is
the exercise of authority
(b) Supervision is directing and guiding the subordinates, while span of control
relates to the number of subordinates being directed
(c) Supervision relates to the number of subordinates being directed, while span
of control is directing and guiding the subordinates
(d) Supervisioin is the exercise of authority while span of control is taking
punitive action against the underperforming employees.
59. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of the classical approach
of Public Administration?
(a) Acceptance of politics - administration dichotomy
(b) The search for principles of administration through scientific analysis .
(c) An emphasis on the centralization of executive activities
(d) Focus on informal and socio-emotional aspects of organizations
60. Consider the following statements about the behavioural approach:
1. It is-concerned with the scientific study of human behaviour
2. It was started by Chester Barnard and later on developed by Herbert Simon.
3. "Its literature is mostly descriptive and not perspective.
4. It stresses on informal relations and communication patterns.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
61. Which one of the following is not correct about system approach?
(a) A system is more than sum of its parts
(b) A system can be considered to be either closed or open
(c) Boundaries in a system are not rigid, impenetrable, or closed
(d) If a system is to achieve dynamic equilibrium, it must not have interactions
with its environment
62. Consider the following statements in respect of bureaucratic form of
organizational design:
1. The primary strength of the bureaucracy lies in its ability to perform nonstandardized
activities in a highly efficient manner.
2. In bureaucracy, there is little need for innovative and experienced decision
makers below the level of senior executives;
3. The pervasiveness of rules and regulations substitutes for managerial
discretion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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63. Which one of the following is not an essential feature of supervision?
(a) Development of agreed work standards between supervisor and subordinates
(b) Developing report forms for subordinates
(c) Resolving conflicts and misunderstanding among subordinates
(d) Fault finding and punishing subordinates
64. Which one of the following generalisations can be drawn from
decentralisation of powers?
(a) 'Planning from below' is a good illustration of this phenomenon
(b) Jurisdictional lines are to be identified
(c) Decisions will affect overall policies
(d) Local officers will report to more than one central agency
65. Match List I (Theory of Motivation) with List II (Premise) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Two Factor theory of F. Herzberg
List II
1. Self-direction and self-control
2. Motivation is a product of anticipated worth of a goal and chances of
achieving that goal
3. Reliance on extemal control of human behaviour
4. Job enrichment instead of job enlargement as a motivation strategy
A B C A B C
(a) 2 1 4 (b) 3 4 1
(c) 2 4 1 (d) 3 1 4
66. Who was analysed leadership in termsof circular response?
(a) C.I.Barnard (b) Mooney
(c) M.P. Follett (d) Millet
67. Which of the following specific incentives for the satisfaction of an
individual have been identified by C.I. Barnard?
1. Material inducements
2. Personal non-material opportunities
3. Desirable physical conditions of work
4. Ideal benefactions ,
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 ,
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
68. Which of the following concepts are associated with M.P. Follet?
1. Functional authority 2. 'Bottom-up' authority
3. Conflict and integration 4. 'Power over' and 'Power with'
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
69. Which of the following concepts are associated with C.I. Barnard? I~
1. Contribution - Satisfaction Equilibrium
2. Zone of Acceptance
3. Strategic Factors in Decision Making
4. Acceptance theory of Authority
5. Organisation as Cooperative System
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 5
70. Which of the following are associated with Simon?
1. He equated administration with decision-making.
2. He did not stress upon decision-making as an alternative to the structural
approach.
3. He proposed a new concept of administration based up on logical positivism.
4. He distinguished between programmed & non-programme decisions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) .1,2 and 3 (b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
71. Which of the following factors are labelled as job dissatisfiers by F.
Herzberg?
1. Salary 2. Supervision
3. Responsibility 4. Work itself
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
72. Who among the following writers concluded that 'people preferred jobs that
offered opportunities for recognition, achievement and responsibility'?
(a) A. Maslow (b) D. McGregor
(c) F. Herzberg (d) Rensis Likert
73. Consider the following statements:
1. Functional classification was recnlT1mended by the Fifth Central Pay
Commission.
2. Position classification results in uniform treatment for promotions.
3. For recruitment to the existing three All-India Services, the Union Public
Service Commission is involved only with the recruitment through open
competition examinations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
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74. Consider the following statements in respect of the Contingency Theory of
Leadership:
1. In extreme unfavourable or extreme favourable situations, a human relation
oriented leader is more effective.
2. In a moderately unfavourable or moderately favourable situation, a taskoriented
leader is more effective.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Who among the following revised the Human Relations approach of Prof. E.
Mayo into a New Human Relations model of management?
(a) Fritz Roethlisberger (b) Rensis Likert
(c) James MacGregor (d) Mary Parker Follet
76. For every 'principle' of administration, there is a Counterprinciple, thus
rendering the whole idea of principles moot. Which one of the following
brought the above point of view?
(a) The Science of Public Administration by R. Dahl
(b) Administrative Behaviour by H. Simon
(c) Ventures in Public Policy by Y. Dror
(d) Administrative State by D. Waldo
77. Consider the following statements: According to Ferrel Heady, both
Comparative Public Administration and International Administration are
similar because
1. both avoid concentration on the administrative system of one single nation.
2. both disregard any administrative system as 'Ideal'.
3. both have a similar framework for analysis:
4. both believe in gradual convergence for mutual benefit.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
78. Which of the following are the motivating concerns which Comparative
Public Administration addresses as an intellectual enterprise?
1. The search for theory.
2. The urge for practical application.
3. The incidental contribution to the broader field of comparative politics.
4. The comparative analysis of ongoing problems of public administration.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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79. Which one of the following statements is acceptable to the protagonists of
New Public Administration?
Rationality as a value
(a) leads to efficient performance
{b) causes flexibility problem in prioritisation
(c) is mere common sense
(d) is rooted in morality
80. Consider the following statements:
'The crisis of identity' in Public Administration in the seventies was
accentuated by
1. the demise of Wilsonian dichotomy
2. the protests made by post-behaviouralists .
3. the growth of Comparative Public Administration
4. the expansion of private administration and market debate Which of the
statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
81. Which one of the following is a clear and distinct line of authority among the
positions in organisations?
(a) Organisational design (b) Chain of command
(c) Hierarchy (d) Departmentalisation
82. Task achievement and excellence of performance in accomplishing a task
are emphasized sometimes at the expense of obedience to one's superior.
Which one of the following has the above as a principal feature?
(a) Closed model organisation
(b) Open model organisation
(c) Bureaucratic organisation
(d) The newer tradition organisation
83. Which one of the following is not correct in relation to the meaning of
delegation?
(a) Entrustment of responsibility to another for performance (b)Entrustment of
powers and rights; or authority, to be exercised
(c) Creation of an obligation, or accountability, on the part of the person
accepting the delegation to perform in terms of the standards established
(d) Shifting of workload without transferring corresponding authority to make a
decision
84. Which of the following are provided for by the Constitution (74th
Amendment) Act in respect of planning of urban and rural local
governments?
1. Constitution of the District Planning Committee
2. Not less than 2/3'd of the District Planning Committee should be elected by,
from amongst, the elected members of district panchayats and municipalities.
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3. All other details regarding the composition of the District Planning
Committee are left to the State Legislatures.
4. Constitution of the Metropolitan Planning Committee. Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 2and4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
85. Which one of the following is the main cause of the scalar system?
(a) Unity of command (b) Hierarchy
(c) Delegation (d) Coordination
86. Which one of the following statements illustrates the principle of span of
control?.
(a) The levels of management connote no inherent superiority and inferiority
(b) Automation, mechanisation and specialisation have brought about a sea
change in decision making
(c) The old concept of one single superior for each personis seldom found
(d) The ever increasing role of administration has focused attention on unity in
the administrative process
87. Match Ust I (Type of Delegation) with List II (Explanation) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A Specific delegation
B. Accrued delegation
C. Unwritten delegation
D. Sideward delegation
List II
1. Subordinate can delegate his authority to his immediate superiors
2, Authority is delegated on the basis of custom or usage
3. A person delegates authority to another who is also in the same rank in the
organisation
4. Orders, instructions or directions are delegated to a particular person
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
88. Consider the following statements:
1. The Estimates Committee of Parliament lacks the expert assistance of the
Comptroller & Auditor General of India which is available to the Public
Accounts Committee of Parliament.
2. All the Ministries / Departments of the Union Government are not taken up
for examination every year by the Estimates Committee, but only a few of
them are selected for this purpose. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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89. Consider the following statements:
1. The Comptroller & Auditor General or India / the Chairman & the Members
of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by the President if
India by warrant under his hand and seal and shall be removed from his
office in like manner & on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office on grounds of
proved misbehaviour or incapacity after an address by each House of
Parliament is supported by a majority of total membership of that House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
90. Consider the following statements:
1. Since 1989, the responsibility for evaluation and processing of proposals
relating to the capital restructuring of various public sector undertakings of
the Union Government is entrusted to the Controller General of Accounts.
2. The Institute of Government Accounts and Finance is situated in Pune.
3. The Expenditure Reforms Committee which completed its term in
September, 2001 was set up under the Chairmanship of YV Reddy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
91. Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Government took the historical step of separating accounts from
the audit function in respect of various ministries and departments under the
Central Government in 1980.
2. Ashoka Chanda was the first Comptroller and Auditor General of India. .
3. Even after the separation of accounts function from the audit function, the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India certifies the Union Government
Finance Accounts and Appropriation Accounts prepared by the Controller
General of Accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
92. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Committee Subject
(a) L.M. Singhvi Committee, 1986 Constitutional Status for
Panchayati Raj
(b) Santhanam Committee, 1964 Prevention of corruption
(c) Satish Chandra Committee, 1988 Civil Services Examination, Union Public
Service Commission
(d) Gore Committee, 1974 Parliamentary control over public
expenditure
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93. Which among the following are the features of participative management?
1. Overlapping structures
2. Cross-functional linkages
3. Multi-directional communication
4. Effective man-to-man relationship
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c.) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
94. Consider the following statements:
1. Auxiliary agencies have no execution or operative responsibilities.
2. Staff agencies are attached to the line agencies at different levels in the
hierarchy.
3. Line agencies provide channels of communication. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
95. Consider the following statements:
The purpose of judicial control over administration is
1. to control the policy and expenditure of the government
2. to ensure the lagality of officials' acts and thereby to safeguard the rights of
the citizens.
3. to bring all officials under the control of the people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
96. With regard to judicial control over administration what does 'malfeasance'
stand for?
(a) Error of procedure (b) Abuse of authority
(c) Error of fact (d) Error of law
97. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Management by exception: The concept of minimum intervention by
exception in operation, and then only when fall/
rise in performance exceeds acceptable
variations in results
(b) Management by objectives: A technique used in planning and controlling
(c) Managerial development: Formal programmes of training structured to
improve managerial skills
(d) Managerial grid: Also called project management
98. Which of the following are intrinsically linked with administrative
accountability?
1. Hierarchy 2. Span of control
3. Unity of command 4. 4. Orders
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
99. Which one of the following is not a system of efficiency rating in the U.S.A.?
(a) Production record system (b) Graphic rating scale system
(c) Personality inventory system (d) Personnel appraisal system
100. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the French Civil
Service?
(a) Civil Service comprises a large number of corps
(b) France upholds a vertical classification of Civil Service
(c) ENA does recruitment for the Civil Service
(d) Promotion is time-bound and based on seniority
101. Which among the following recommended the introduction of performance
budget in India?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Appleby Report
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(d) Administrative Reforms Commission
102. Which of the following is/are the provisions of Article 18 of the Constitution
of India which pertains to the Right to Equality to the citizens of India?
(a) No title, not being military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the
State
(b) No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State
(c) No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State, shall without
the consent of the President, accept any present, emolument or office of any
kind from or under any foreign State
(d) All of the above three
103. Which one of the following is not included in deficit financing in India?
(a) Withdrawal of past accumulated cash balance
(b) Borrowing from the Central bank
(c) Issue of new currency
(d) Borrowing from the people
104. Match List I (Grants) with List II (Explanation) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A Vote on account 1. To make any grant in advance in respect of
estimated expenditure for a part of financial year
pending the completion of the procedure
prescribed in Article 113
B. Excess grant 2. To make a grant for meeting an unexpected
demand upon resources of India
C. Exceptional grant 3. To take approval for money spent during a
financial year in excess of amount granted for the
service
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D. Supplementary 4. To take approval if the amount grantauthorized by
law for the current year is found insufficient
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 2 3 1 4
105. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Personnel
Authority of Japan:
1. The National Personnel Authority of Japan was created by the National
Public Service Law.
2. It is responsible for education and training of the public servants.
3. President and Commissioners of the National Personnel Authority of Japan
are "appointed by the Cabinet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
106. Which of the following statements is not correct in respect of civil service in
Japan?
(a) Political activism is totally absent in the Japanese bureaucratic tradition.
(b) The lateral movement between ministries in the Japanese civil service is
limited.
(c) There is dominance of law background graduates in the Japanese civil
service.
(d) The National Personnel Authority has all the non-elective and non-political
appointments, excluding specified posts under its control.
107. Consider the following statements in respect of the civil service in France:
1. The French Civil Service is dominated by the law experts.
2. Ecole National de Administration conducts competitive examination for entry
into the Government service.
3. Ecole National de Administration is not responsible for providing training to
the civil servants.
4. French civil servants are in enjoyment of political rights to a far greater
extent, as compared to those of other countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
108. Under which provision does the Governor of a State constitute a State
Finance Commission to review the financial position of Panchayats?
(a) Under the discretionary powers of the Governor
(b) By a resolution passed in the Legislative Assembly
(c) In accordance with the Article 2431 of the Constitution of India
(d) In accordance with a resolution passed in the Rajya Sabha
109. Article 143 of the Constitution of India deals with the Governor for each
State. By which Amendment Act, has it been provided that the same person
can be appointed Governor for more than one State?
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(a) Fifth (b) Seventh
(c) Ninth (d) Eleventh
110. In which one of the following methods of training, is a particular topic
chosen and specific groups are assigned the task of making an in-depth
'study of that subject under the guidance of an expert faculty?
(a) Case study method (b) Critical incident method
(c) Sensitivity method (d) Syndicate method
111. Which of the following Commissions I Reports recommended setting up of
Indian Institute of Public Administration?
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) A.D. Gorwala Report (d) Paul H. Appleby Report
112. Match items in the List I (Commission/Report) with those in List II
(Recommendation) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists: .
List I List II
A Aitchison Commission 1. Increase of emoluments for the members
of the Civil Services in order to dissuade
the European Civil Servants from
returning home
B. Islington Commission 2. Proposed classification of all the services
into Imperial provincial and subordinate
services
C. Montague Chelmsford Report 3. Holding of simultaneous examinations in
India and England for ICS
D. Lee 4. To associate Indians with Commission
administration in every branch
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
113. Which one of the following does not come in the ambit of recommendations
by the Finance Commission?
(a) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States
(b) The principles to be followed by the Centre while giving grants-in-aid to the
States out of .the Consolidated Fund of India
(c) The amount of money to be allocated to States from the Public Account of
India
(d) Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interest
of sound finance
114. Consider the following statements in respect of the Prime Ministar's
Secretariate :
1. It enjoys the status of a Department of the Government of India under
allocation of business rules
2. It has a few attached and subordinate offices under it.
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3. It came into existence immediately after independence replacing the
Secretary to the Governor General.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
115. Consider the following statements in respect of the Central Secretariat in
India:
1. It assists the Council of Ministers in the fulfilment of its responsibilities and
duties.
2. It is based on the belief that policy-making must be separated from policy
execution.
3. Secretarial system in India is similar both to the British and the Swedish
systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
116. Which are the functions of the attached offices to a ministry?
1. Providing execution direction required in the implementation of policies.
2. Serving as a repository of technical information.
3. Advising the concerned ministry on technical aspects of policies.
4. Detailed execution of the policies of the government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
117. Match List I (Concept) with List II (Propunder) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Daily balance chart 1. F.W. Taylor
B. Science of motion study 2. Emerson
C. Efficiency System 3. Gilberth
D. Shop floor activities 4. H.L.Gantt
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
118. What is the purpose of issue of Mandamus?
(a) Directing an official for the performance of a duty
(b) Release of an illegally detained person
(c) Transferring of a case from an inferior court to a court of higher jurisdiction
(d) Calling upon one to show as to by what authority he holds or claims a
franchise or office
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119. Which of the following opportunities is provided by the Appropriation Bill
to the legislature?
(a) To discuss the policy and other matters related to the expenditure of various
ministries
(b) To change amount of demands of various ministries
(c) To reallocate the grants of various ministries
(d) To vary the amount of expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of
India
120. Consider the following statements:
1. There is provision under an Article of the Constitution of India, that
Parliament may by law provide for adjudication of disputes relating to waters
of inter-state rivers or river valleys.
2. Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 has been amended by the Centre to
empower States to abolish the State Administrative Tribunals, if they so
desire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d)
19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (b) 26. (b) 47. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b)
37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a) 41. (d) 42. (d)
43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (b)
49. (d) 50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b)
55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (c)
67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (b). 70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (c)
73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (d)
79. (d) 80. (c) 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (c)
85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (b)
97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (d) 101. (d) 102. (d)
103.(d) 104. (a) 1 05.(d) 106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (c)
109. (b) 110. (d) 111. (d) 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (d)
115. (d) 116. (d) 117. (b) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (c)
